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Arunachal Pradesh Nursing Council Model MCQs for 2025

Table of Contents

Here is a set of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) relevant to the Arunachal Pradesh Nursing Council, with answers provided at the end.

Questions


1. What is the most appropriate action when a nurse notices a patient’s wound has a significant amount of drainage?
a) Apply a fresh dressing
b) Continue monitoring without intervention
c) Notify the healthcare provider for further assessment
d) Change the patient’s position


2. Which of the following is the most common symptom of hypoxia?
a) Hypertension
b) Cyanosis
c) Tachycardia
d) Hyperventilation


3. In the event of a cardiac arrest, what is the first intervention the nurse should initiate?
a) Administer epinephrine
b) Start chest compressions
c) Establish an airway
d) Administer oxygen


4. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
a) 10-12 breaths per minute
b) 12-16 breaths per minute
c) 18-22 breaths per minute
d) 20-24 breaths per minute


5. Which of the following nursing interventions is most important for a patient with a fever?
a) Increase fluid intake
b) Apply cold packs to the body
c) Keep the room temperature low
d) Administer antipyretics


6. What is the purpose of a Fowler’s position in a patient with respiratory distress?
a) Increase the workload on the heart
b) Promote drainage of secretions
c) Help relieve pain in the abdomen
d) Assist in reducing swelling


7. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) should avoid which of the following?
a) High-flow oxygen therapy
b) Deep breathing exercises
c) Use of incentive spirometer
d) Increasing physical activity


8. Which of the following is a priority for a nurse caring for a post-operative patient who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
a) Administer anticoagulant medications
b) Encourage bed rest to minimize stress
c) Apply anti-embolism stockings or compression devices
d) Increase the intake of potassium-rich foods


9. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with a history of seizures?
a) Place the patient in a supine position
b) Administer prescribed antiepileptic drugs
c) Provide emotional support
d) Ensure the patient’s safety by clearing the area of hazards


10. What is the primary goal of care for a patient with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
a) Increase the patient’s fluid intake
b) Control blood sugar levels within the normal range
c) Administer regular insulin doses
d) Promote exercise


11. What is the purpose of an intravenous (IV) drip rate?
a) To determine how much fluid a patient should drink
b) To measure how long a medication should be infused
c) To regulate the amount of fluid the patient receives per unit of time
d) To speed up the delivery of fluid to the bloodstream


12. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting?
a) Administer epinephrine
b) Apply a tourniquet above the site of the sting
c) Apply heat to the affected area
d) Instruct the patient to remain calm and monitor vitals


13. A nurse is teaching a patient with hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following is most important for the patient to understand?
a) Consuming foods high in salt will help lower blood pressure
b) Regular exercise and weight management can help control blood pressure
c) Drinking alcohol will increase blood pressure control
d) Increasing intake of caffeine will help manage hypertension


14. What is the normal range for an adult’s body temperature?
a) 96.8°F to 98.6°F
b) 97.0°F to 99.0°F
c) 98.0°F to 100.0°F
d) 98.6°F to 100.4°F


15. In which position should a nurse place a patient for an enema administration?
a) Prone
b) Supine
c) Left lateral Sims’ position
d) Right lateral Sims’ position


16. When caring for a newborn, what is the most important step in preventing infection?
a) Keep the baby’s room warm
b) Encourage the parents to perform hand hygiene before touching the baby
c) Bathe the baby with antiseptic solutions
d) Administer antibiotics regularly


17. Which of the following should a nurse monitor when a patient is receiving chemotherapy?
a) Liver function tests
b) Complete blood count (CBC)
c) Serum potassium levels
d) Blood glucose levels


18. What is the most common cause of postoperative fever within the first 48 hours after surgery?
a) Infection
b) Hypothermia
c) Inflammation
d) Dehydration


19. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
a) Encourage the patient to drink large amounts of fluids
b) Change the catheter every 24 hours
c) Keep the catheter drainage bag above the level of the bladder
d) Ensure the catheter is clamped every 2 hours


20. What is the appropriate way to assess a patient’s pulse rate?
a) Count the pulse for 10 seconds and multiply by 6
b) Count the pulse for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
c) Count the pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2
d) Count the pulse for a full minute without multiplying


Answer Key:

  1. c) Notify the healthcare provider for further assessment
  2. b) Cyanosis
  3. b) Start chest compressions
  4. b) 12-16 breaths per minute
  5. a) Increase fluid intake
  6. b) Promote drainage of secretions
  7. a) High-flow oxygen therapy
  8. c) Apply anti-embolism stockings or compression devices
  9. d) Ensure the patient’s safety by clearing the area of hazards
  10. b) Control blood sugar levels within the normal range
  11. c) To regulate the amount of fluid the patient receives per unit of time
  12. a) Administer epinephrine
  13. b) Regular exercise and weight management can help control blood pressure
  14. a) 96.8°F to 98.6°F
  15. c) Left lateral Sims’ position
  16. b) Encourage the parents to perform hand hygiene before touching the baby
  17. b) Complete blood count (CBC)
  18. c) Inflammation
  19. a) Encourage the patient to drink large amounts of fluids
  20. c) Count the pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2

Andhra Pradesh Nurses and Midwives Council exam Model MCQs 2025

Table of Contents

Here are 10 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with answers that could be relevant for the Andhra Pradesh Nurses and Midwives Council exam:


Questions

1. Which of the following is the first priority in the nursing care of a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?
a) Administer oxygen therapy
b) Administer pain relief
c) Encourage early ambulation
d) Perform chest physiotherapy
Answer: a) Administer oxygen therapy


2. What is the primary purpose of the nurse in the management of a patient undergoing general anesthesia?
a) Monitor vital signs and maintain airway
b) Assist with surgical procedures
c) Provide psychological support
d) Administer intravenous fluids
Answer: a) Monitor vital signs and maintain airway


3. What is the normal range for adult blood pressure?
a) 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg
b) 100/70 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg
c) 120/80 mmHg to 160/100 mmHg
d) 80/60 mmHg to 100/70 mmHg
Answer: a) 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg


4. Which of the following is a common symptom of hypoglycemia?
a) Increased thirst
b) Increased urination
c) Sweating and shakiness
d) Slow breathing
Answer: c) Sweating and shakiness


5. In which situation would a nurse use a sterile dressing technique?
a) When caring for a patient with a clean surgical wound
b) When applying a bandage to a minor abrasion
c) When dressing a wound that is infected or has a risk of infection
d) When administering oral medications
Answer: c) When dressing a wound that is infected or has a risk of infection


6. What is the main role of a midwife during labor and delivery?
a) Provide anesthesia for pain relief
b) Assist the obstetrician during cesarean section
c) Monitor fetal heart rate and maternal well-being
d) Prescribe medications for pain management
Answer: c) Monitor fetal heart rate and maternal well-being


7. The correct placement of an intramuscular injection is:
a) In the subcutaneous tissue
b) In the deltoid muscle
c) In the upper arm vein
d) In the lower leg
Answer: b) In the deltoid muscle


8. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a fractured femur?
a) Encourage walking immediately
b) Administer a high-protein diet
c) Immobilize the leg and monitor for signs of shock
d) Apply heat to the affected area
Answer: c) Immobilize the leg and monitor for signs of shock


9. A nurse is providing education to a patient diagnosed with hypertension. What is the most effective dietary change the nurse should recommend?
a) Increase sodium intake
b) Decrease fat intake
c) Increase protein intake
d) Decrease carbohydrate intake
Answer: b) Decrease fat intake


10. In what position should a patient be placed when undergoing a lumbar puncture procedure?
a) Prone position with legs extended
b) Supine position with legs elevated
c) Lateral recumbent position with knees drawn to the chest
d) Sitting upright with legs dangling
Answer: c) Lateral recumbent position with knees drawn to the chest


These questions are designed to cover a variety of nursing topics relevant to the Andhra Pradesh Nurses and Midwives Council exam.

CHANDIGARH NURSING COUNCIL LICENSING EXAMINATION MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2025


SECTION A: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (10 Questions)

  1. Which of the following is the normal body temperature of a healthy adult? a) 96.8°F
    b) 98.6°F
    c) 100.4°F
    d) 97.2°F
  2. The best method to prevent hospital-acquired infections is: a) Wearing gloves at all times
    b) Frequent hand hygiene
    c) Using antiseptic sprays
    d) Wearing face masks
  3. A nurse caring for an unconscious patient should prioritize which of the following? a) Range of motion exercises
    b) Frequent position changes
    c) Fluid intake monitoring
    d) Emotional support
  4. The normal range of respiratory rate for an adult is: a) 8-12 breaths per minute
    b) 12-20 breaths per minute
    c) 20-28 breaths per minute
    d) 28-36 breaths per minute
  5. What is the normal pH range of blood? a) 6.8-7.2
    b) 7.35-7.45
    c) 7.5-8.0
    d) 6.5-7.0
  6. The primary function of red blood cells is to: a) Fight infection
    b) Transport oxygen
    c) Produce antibodies
    d) Assist in clotting
  7. A sterile field becomes contaminated when: a) It is exposed to air for more than 10 minutes
    b) A non-sterile item touches it
    c) It is touched by gloves
    d) The procedure is completed
  8. Which of the following pulse sites is used during CPR for an adult? a) Radial
    b) Carotid
    c) Brachial
    d) Femoral
  9. The best position for a patient experiencing difficulty in breathing is: a) Supine
    b) Prone
    c) Fowler’s
    d) Trendelenburg
  10. What is the first step in wound care management? a) Applying an antibiotic ointment
    b) Cleaning the wound
    c) Covering with a sterile dressing
    d) Assessing the wound

SECTION B: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (2 Questions)

  1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in chronic kidney disease? a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hypocalcemia
    d) Hypernatremia
  2. The most important nursing intervention for a patient with myocardial infarction is: a) Encourage early ambulation
    b) Administer oxygen therapy
    c) Perform chest physiotherapy
    d) Give a high-protein diet

ANSWER KEY

  1. b) 98.6°F
  2. b) Frequent hand hygiene
  3. b) Frequent position changes
  4. b) 12-20 breaths per minute
  5. b) 7.35-7.45
  6. b) Transport oxygen
  7. b) A non-sterile item touches it
  8. b) Carotid
  9. c) Fowler’s
  10. d) Assessing the wound
  11. a) Hyperkalemia
  12. b) Administer oxygen therapy

PUDUCHERRY NURSING COUNCIL LICENSING EXAMINATION MODEL QUESTION PAPER (set 2) 2025


SECTION A: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. Which of the following is the normal body temperature of a healthy adult? a) 96.8°F
    b) 98.6°F
    c) 100.4°F
    d) 97.2°F
  2. The best method to prevent hospital-acquired infections is: a) Wearing gloves at all times
    b) Frequent hand hygiene
    c) Using antiseptic sprays
    d) Wearing face masks
  3. A nurse caring for an unconscious patient should prioritize which of the following? a) Range of motion exercises
    b) Frequent position changes
    c) Fluid intake monitoring
    d) Emotional support

SECTION B: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in chronic kidney disease? a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hypocalcemia
    d) Hypernatremia
  2. The most important nursing intervention for a patient with myocardial infarction is: a) Encourage early ambulation
    b) Administer oxygen therapy
    c) Perform chest physiotherapy
    d) Give a high-protein diet
  3. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) should be advised to: a) Increase oxygen flow to 6 L/min
    b) Avoid cold environments
    c) Drink less fluid
    d) Reduce carbohydrate intake

SECTION C: MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. The ideal position for a pregnant woman in her third trimester to improve circulation is: a) Supine position
    b) Right lateral position
    c) Left lateral position
    d) Semi-Fowler’s position
  2. The first vaccine given to a newborn is: a) BCG
    b) OPV
    c) DPT
    d) Hepatitis B
  3. The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is: a) Retained placenta
    b) Uterine atony
    c) Cervical tear
    d) Coagulation disorders

SECTION D: COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. Which is the most effective method of family planning? a) Oral contraceptive pills
    b) Male condoms
    c) Intrauterine device (IUD)
    d) Natural family planning
  2. The primary goal of health promotion is to: a) Treat diseases
    b) Prevent diseases
    c) Rehabilitate patients
    d) Provide palliative care
  3. The incubation period of measles is: a) 3-5 days
    b) 7-14 days
    c) 10-20 days
    d) 21-30 days

SECTION E: MENTAL HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. The best nursing intervention is: a) Ignore the hallucinations
    b) Challenge the patient’s belief
    c) Acknowledge the patient’s experience
    d) Administer sedatives
  2. Lithium is commonly used to treat: a) Anxiety disorders
    b) Bipolar disorder
    c) Schizophrenia
    d) Depression
  3. The most common side effect of benzodiazepines is: a) Hypertension
    b) Sedation
    c) Diarrhea
    d) Tachycardia

ANSWER KEY

  1. b) 98.6°F
  2. b) Frequent hand hygiene
  3. b) Frequent position changes
  4. a) Hyperkalemia
  5. b) Administer oxygen therapy
  6. b) Avoid cold environments
  7. c) Left lateral position
  8. a) BCG
  9. b) Uterine atony
  10. c) Intrauterine device (IUD)
  11. b) Prevent diseases
  12. b) 7-14 days
  13. c) Acknowledge the patient’s experience
  14. b) Bipolar disorder
  15. b) Sedation

PUDUCHERRY NURSING COUNCIL LICENSING EXAMINATION MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2025


SECTION A: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. Which of the following is the normal body temperature of a healthy adult? a) 96.8°F
    b) 98.6°F
    c) 100.4°F
    d) 97.2°F
  2. The best method to prevent hospital-acquired infections is: a) Wearing gloves at all times
    b) Frequent hand hygiene
    c) Using antiseptic sprays
    d) Wearing face masks
  3. A nurse caring for an unconscious patient should prioritize which of the following? a) Range of motion exercises
    b) Frequent position changes
    c) Fluid intake monitoring
    d) Emotional support
  4. The normal range of respiratory rate for an adult is: a) 8-12 breaths per minute
    b) 12-20 breaths per minute
    c) 20-28 breaths per minute
    d) 28-36 breaths per minute

SECTION B: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in chronic kidney disease? a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hypocalcemia
    d) Hypernatremia
  2. The most important nursing intervention for a patient with myocardial infarction is: a) Encourage early ambulation
    b) Administer oxygen therapy
    c) Perform chest physiotherapy
    d) Give a high-protein diet
  3. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) should be advised to: a) Increase oxygen flow to 6 L/min
    b) Avoid cold environments
    c) Drink less fluid
    d) Reduce carbohydrate intake
  4. The first sign of hypoglycemia is: a) Bradycardia
    b) Diaphoresis
    c) Hypertension
    d) Hyperthermia

SECTION C: MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. The ideal position for a pregnant woman in her third trimester to improve circulation is: a) Supine position
    b) Right lateral position
    c) Left lateral position
    d) Semi-Fowler’s position
  2. The first vaccine given to a newborn is: a) BCG
    b) OPV
    c) DPT
    d) Hepatitis B
  3. The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is: a) Retained placenta
    b) Uterine atony
    c) Cervical tear
    d) Coagulation disorders
  4. What is the normal heart rate range for a newborn? a) 60-80 bpm
    b) 80-100 bpm
    c) 100-160 bpm
    d) 160-200 bpm

SECTION D: COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. Which is the most effective method of family planning? a) Oral contraceptive pills
    b) Male condoms
    c) Intrauterine device (IUD)
    d) Natural family planning
  2. The primary goal of health promotion is to: a) Treat diseases
    b) Prevent diseases
    c) Rehabilitate patients
    d) Provide palliative care
  3. The incubation period of measles is: a) 3-5 days
    b) 7-14 days
    c) 10-20 days
    d) 21-30 days
  4. Which vitamin deficiency is associated with night blindness? a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin B1
    c) Vitamin C
    d) Vitamin D

SECTION E: MENTAL HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

  1. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. The best nursing intervention is: a) Ignore the hallucinations
    b) Challenge the patient’s belief
    c) Acknowledge the patient’s experience
    d) Administer sedatives
  2. Lithium is commonly used to treat: a) Anxiety disorders
    b) Bipolar disorder
    c) Schizophrenia
    d) Depression
  3. The most common side effect of benzodiazepines is: a) Hypertension
    b) Sedation
    c) Diarrhea
    d) Tachycardia
  4. The therapeutic level of lithium is: a) 0.2-0.5 mEq/L
    b) 0.6-1.2 mEq/L
    c) 1.5-2.0 mEq/L
    d) 2.5-3.0 mEq/L

ANSWER KEY

  1. b) 98.6°F
  2. b) Frequent hand hygiene
  3. b) Frequent position changes
  4. b) 12-20 breaths per minute
  5. a) Hyperkalemia
  6. b) Administer oxygen therapy
  7. b) Avoid cold environments
  8. b) Diaphoresis
  9. c) Left lateral position
  10. a) BCG
  11. b) Uterine atony
  12. c) 100-160 bpm
  13. c) Intrauterine device (IUD)
  14. b) Prevent diseases
  15. b) 7-14 days
  16. a) Vitamin A
  17. c) Acknowledge the patient’s experience
  18. b) Bipolar disorder
  19. b) Sedation
  20. b) 0.6-1.2 mEq/L

This model paper provides a comprehensive overview of the types of questions that may appear in the Puducherry Nursing Council Licensing Examination. Preparing thoroughly in these key nursing subjects will help in successfully clearing the exam.

Union Territories Nursing Council License Examination Model Questions (Part 2)

These are Union Territories Nursing Council License Examination Model Questions (Part 2). Check part 1 here.

7. Pharmacology

  1. The antidote for opioid overdose is:
    a) Atropine
    b) Naloxone
    c) Flumazenil
    d) Protamine sulfate
  2. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
    a) Furosemide
    b) Spironolactone
    c) Hydrochlorothiazide
    d) Acetazolamide
  3. The drug commonly used to treat tuberculosis (TB) is:
    a) Rifampicin
    b) Acyclovir
    c) Ceftriaxone
    d) Amoxicillin
  4. A patient on warfarin therapy should avoid excessive intake of:
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin B12
    c) Vitamin K
    d) Vitamin C
  5. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?
    a) Losartan
    b) Amlodipine
    c) Metoprolol
    d) Clonidine

8. Emergency & Critical Care Nursing

  1. The universal sign of choking is:
    a) Coughing
    b) Holding the throat
    c) Cyanosis
    d) Wheezing
  2. In cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the compression-to-ventilation ratio for an adult is:
    a) 15:2
    b) 30:2
    c) 45:2
    d) 60:2
  3. Which of the following is a sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
    a) Hypotension
    b) Bradycardia
    c) Tachypnea
    d) Hypertension with bradycardia
  4. The best initial treatment for anaphylactic shock is:
    a) Hydrocortisone
    b) Epinephrine
    c) Dopamine
    d) Antihistamines
  5. In burn management, the Parkland formula is used to calculate:
    a) Pain management dosage
    b) Nutritional requirements
    c) Fluid resuscitation
    d) Infection control measures

9. Medical-Surgical Nursing (Continued)

  1. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with tetany and muscle cramps?
    a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypocalcemia
    c) Hypernatremia
    d) Hypomagnesemia
  2. The best diagnostic test for myocardial infarction (MI) is:
    a) ECG
    b) Chest X-ray
    c) Troponin levels
    d) Complete blood count
  3. Cushing’s syndrome is caused by an excess of:
    a) Insulin
    b) Cortisol
    c) Thyroxine
    d) Aldosterone
  4. The most common complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is:
    a) Myocardial infarction
    b) Pulmonary embolism
    c) Stroke
    d) Hypertension
  5. Which condition is an example of an autoimmune disorder?
    a) Tuberculosis
    b) Rheumatoid arthritis
    c) Pneumonia
    d) Liver cirrhosis

10. Obstetric & Gynecologic Nursing (Continued)

  1. The best position for a patient with severe preeclampsia is:
    a) Supine
    b) Left lateral
    c) High Fowler’s
    d) Trendelenburg
  2. The main function of oxytocin during labor is:
    a) Reduce blood pressure
    b) Induce uterine contractions
    c) Increase fetal movement
    d) Maintain pregnancy
  3. Ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in the:
    a) Ovary
    b) Uterus
    c) Fallopian tube
    d) Cervix
  4. The most common cause of maternal death in pregnancy is:
    a) Infections
    b) Postpartum hemorrhage
    c) Pre-eclampsia
    d) Embolism
  5. The recommended folic acid intake for pregnant women to prevent neural tube defects is:
    a) 100 mcg/day
    b) 200 mcg/day
    c) 400 mcg/day
    d) 800 mcg/day

11. Pediatric Nursing (Continued)

  1. The first permanent tooth to erupt is the:
    a) Central incisor
    b) Lateral incisor
    c) First molar
    d) Canine
  2. The best treatment for severe dehydration in children due to diarrhea is:
    a) Oral rehydration therapy (ORS)
    b) IV normal saline
    c) Anti-diarrheal medication
    d) Increased fluid intake
  3. A newborn’s APGAR score is assessed at:
    a) 1 minute and 3 minutes
    b) 1 minute and 5 minutes
    c) 5 minutes and 10 minutes
    d) 10 minutes and 15 minutes
  4. The most common cause of death in children under 5 years is:
    a) Pneumonia
    b) Malaria
    c) Tuberculosis
    d) Hepatitis
  5. A 3-year-old child should be able to:
    a) Write their name
    b) Tie shoelaces
    c) Ride a tricycle
    d) Read sentences

Answer Key (Questions 26-50)

  1. b) Naloxone
  2. a) Furosemide
  3. a) Rifampicin
  4. c) Vitamin K
  5. c) Metoprolol
  6. b) Holding the throat
  7. b) 30:2
  8. d) Hypertension with bradycardia
  9. b) Epinephrine
  10. c) Fluid resuscitation
  11. b) Hypocalcemia
  12. c) Troponin levels
  13. b) Cortisol
  14. b) Pulmonary embolism
  15. b) Rheumatoid arthritis
  16. b) Left lateral
  17. b) Induce uterine contractions
  18. c) Fallopian tube
  19. b) Postpartum hemorrhage
  20. c) 400 mcg/day
  21. c) First molar
  22. a) Oral rehydration therapy (ORS)
  23. b) 1 minute and 5 minutes
  24. a) Pneumonia
  25. c) Ride a tricycle