Union Territories Nursing Council License Examination Model Questions (2025) according to topic. Answer keys are in the end.

1. Fundamentals of Nursing

1. The primary purpose of hand hygiene in healthcare is to:
   a) Keep hands clean
   b) Reduce healthcare-associated infections
   c) Prevent dryness of hands
   d) Maintain pleasant odor
2. What is the normal range of body temperature in Celsius?
   a) 35.0 – 35.5°C
   b) 36.1 – 37.2°C
   c) 38.1 – 39.5°C
   d) 34.0 – 35.0°C
3. The best site to check for an adult’s pulse during a cardiac arrest is:
   a) Radial artery
   b) Brachial artery
   c) Carotid artery
   d) Femoral artery
4. A nurse is providing oral care to an unconscious patient. The best position to prevent aspiration is:
   a) Supine
   b) Side-lying
   c) Prone
   d) High Fowler’s
5. The first step in the nursing process is:
   a) Implementation
   b) Diagnosis
   c) Planning
   d) Assessment
6. The universal precautions are mainly designed to protect against:
   a) Respiratory infections
   b) Bloodborne pathogens
   c) Foodborne illnesses
   d) Vector-borne diseases
7. The most accurate method to measure core body temperature is:
   a) Oral thermometer
   b) Tympanic thermometer
   c) Rectal thermometer
   d) Axillary thermometer

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2. Medical-Surgical Nursing

8. Which is the first sign of hypovolemic shock?
   a) Bradycardia
   b) Decreased respiratory rate
   c) Tachycardia
   d) Increased blood pressure
9. The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is:
   a) Supine
   b) Fowler’s position
   c) Trendelenburg
   d) Lithotomy
10. A patient with diabetes mellitus is experiencing confusion, sweating, and shakiness. The nurse should:
    a) Check blood glucose levels
    b) Administer insulin
    c) Encourage exercise
    d) Withhold food
11. Anemia is most commonly caused by:
    a) Vitamin A deficiency
    b) Low hemoglobin levels
    c) High white blood cells
    d) Increased platelet count
12. The first-line treatment for acute asthma attack is:
    a) Antihistamines
    b) Beta-agonists (e.g., Salbutamol)
    c) Antibiotics
    d) Corticosteroids

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3. Obstetric & Gynecologic Nursing

13. The normal fetal heart rate range is:
    a) 100-120 bpm
    b) 120-160 bpm
    c) 60-100 bpm
    d) 160-200 bpm
14. The first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity in preeclampsia treatment is:
    a) Hypotension
    b) Loss of deep tendon reflexes
    c) Increased urine output
    d) Hyperthermia
15. The recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding is:
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months
16. The best position for a woman in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord is:
    a) Supine
    b) Lithotomy
    c) Knee-chest
    d) Trendelenburg
17. The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is:
    a) Uterine atony
    b) Sepsis
    c) Thromboembolism
    d) Hypertension

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4. Pediatric Nursing

18. The first vaccine given at birth in the National Immunization Program is:
    a) DPT
    b) Hepatitis B
    c) BCG
    d) MMR
19. Koplik’s spots are associated with:
    a) Measles
    b) Mumps
    c) Rubella
    d) Chickenpox
20. A baby is considered low birth weight (LBW) if the weight is:
    a) Below 2.5 kg
    b) Below 3.5 kg
    c) Below 4.5 kg
    d) Below 5.0 kg

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5. Mental Health Nursing

21. Which neurotransmitter is decreased in depression?
    a) Dopamine
    b) Acetylcholine
    c) Serotonin
    d) Glutamate
22. The priority nursing intervention for a patient with suicidal thoughts is:
    a) Offer group therapy
    b) Monitor closely and ensure safety
    c) Encourage social isolation
    d) Ignore the behavior
23. The most common side effect of antipsychotic medications is:
    a) Weight loss
    b) Hypertension
    c) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
    d) Hyperactivity

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6. Community Health Nursing

24. The primary mode of transmission of Hepatitis A is:
    a) Bloodborne
    b) Sexual contact
    c) Airborne
    d) Fecal-oral route
25. The best strategy to prevent neonatal tetanus is:
    a) Early cord clamping
    b) Exclusive breastfeeding
    c) Tetanus immunization during pregnancy
    d) Delaying vaccinations

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Answer Key

1. b) Reduce healthcare-associated infections
2. b) 36.1 – 37.2°C
3. c) Carotid artery
4. b) Side-lying
5. d) Assessment
6. b) Bloodborne pathogens
7. c) Rectal thermometer
8. c) Tachycardia
9. b) Fowler’s position
10. a) Check blood glucose levels
11. b) Low hemoglobin levels
12. b) Beta-agonists (e.g., Salbutamol)
13. b) 120-160 bpm
14. b) Loss of deep tendon reflexes
15. b) 6 months
16. c) Knee-chest
17. a) Uterine atony
18. c) BCG
19. a) Measles
20. a) Below 2.5 kg
21. c) Serotonin
22. b) Monitor closely and ensure safety
23. c) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
24. d) Fecal-oral route
25. c) Tetanus immunization during pregnancy

Nepal Nursing Council (NNC) License examination is tough examination and you need to pactice these Nepal Nursing Council (NNC) License examination model questions to pass them easily without a single second attempt. .So here we begin:

Fundamentals of Nursing

1. The best method to confirm correct placement of a nasogastric tube is:
   a) Injecting air and auscultating over the stomach
   b) Measuring tube length
   c) Checking pH of aspirated fluid
   d) Observing for patient discomfort
2. A nurse is assisting a bedridden patient with oral hygiene. The best position to prevent aspiration is:
   a) Supine
   b) Prone
   c) Side-lying
   d) High-Fowler’s
3. The first step in the nursing process is:
   a) Implementation
   b) Assessment
   c) Diagnosis
   d) Evaluation
4. The normal range for an adult pulse rate is:
   a) 40-60 bpm
   b) 60-100 bpm
   c) 100-120 bpm
   d) 120-140 bpm
5. A nurse documents a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg. This is classified as:
   a) Hypotension
   b) Normal blood pressure
   c) Prehypertension
   d) Hypertension

Medical-Surgical Nursing

6. Which of the following conditions is characterized by chest pain relieved by rest or nitroglycerin?
   a) Myocardial infarction
   b) Stable angina
   c) Pulmonary embolism
   d) Pericarditis
7. The primary sign of hypovolemic shock is:
   a) Bradycardia
   b) Hypertension
   c) Tachycardia
   d) Normal skin color
8. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates renal failure?
   a) Elevated creatinine
   b) Low hemoglobin
   c) Low blood glucose
   d) Decreased sodium
9. The first priority for a patient with acute stroke is:
   a) Administer IV fluids
   b) Assess airway and breathing
   c) Obtain CT scan
   d) Check blood sugar level
10. A nurse suspects a patient has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The best initial intervention is:
    a) Encourage walking
    b) Massage the affected leg
    c) Elevate the affected limb
    d) Apply ice packs

Obstetric & Gynecologic Nursing

11. The first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity in preeclampsia treatment is:
    a) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
    b) Hypertension
    c) Increased urine output
    d) Hyperthermia
12. The ideal position for a woman in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord is:
    a) Lithotomy
    b) Supine
    c) Knee-chest
    d) Side-lying
13. The most common complication of postpartum hemorrhage is:
    a) Hypovolemic shock
    b) Hypertension
    c) Hypercoagulation
    d) Bradycardia
14. The recommended exclusive breastfeeding duration for infants is:
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months
15. The most common cause of maternal mortality worldwide is:
    a) Postpartum hemorrhage
    b) Eclampsia
    c) Sepsis
    d) Obstructed labor

Pediatric Nursing

16. A newborn with jaundice should be treated with:
    a) Iron supplements
    b) Phototherapy
    c) Vitamin K injection
    d) Blood transfusion
17. Which is the best position for an infant after feeding to prevent regurgitation?
    a) Supine
    b) Side-lying
    c) Prone
    d) Trendelenburg
18. A child with severe dehydration due to diarrhea requires which IV fluid initially?
    a) 0.9% Normal saline
    b) Dextrose 5%
    c) Ringer’s lactate
    d) Half-normal saline
19. The first sign of rickets in children is:
    a) Leg bowing
    b) Delayed fontanelle closure
    c) Enlarged liver
    d) Excessive crying
20. A vaccine given at birth in the Nepal National Immunization Program is:
    a) BCG
    b) DPT
    c) Hepatitis A
    d) MMR

Mental Health Nursing

21. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is linked to depression?
    a) Increased dopamine
    b) Decreased serotonin
    c) Increased acetylcholine
    d) Decreased norepinephrine
22. The first-line drug for schizophrenia is:
    a) Fluoxetine
    b) Haloperidol
    c) Lorazepam
    d) Amitriptyline
23. The priority intervention for a patient experiencing suicidal thoughts is:
    a) Provide reassurance
    b) Monitor closely and ensure safety
    c) Encourage self-reflection
    d) Offer group therapy
24. Which is an early sign of lithium toxicity?
    a) Seizures
    b) Vomiting and diarrhea
    c) Hallucinations
    d) Bradycardia
25. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes hands. The best nursing approach is:
    a) Stop the behavior immediately
    b) Allow the ritual while gradually introducing coping strategies
    c) Ignore the behavior
    d) Encourage complete isolation

Community Health Nursing

26. The best way to prevent neonatal tetanus is:
    a) Providing clean delivery services
    b) Breastfeeding immediately
    c) Delaying cord cutting
    d) Giving iron supplements
27. The primary mode of transmission of hepatitis A is:
    a) Sexual contact
    b) Blood transfusion
    c) Fecal-oral route
    d) Airborne droplets
28. The first step in disaster management is:
    a) Recovery
    b) Response
    c) Preparedness
    d) Mitigation
29. A key strategy to prevent malnutrition in children under 5 years is:
    a) Exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months
    b) Introducing formula early
    c) Delaying complementary feeding
    d) Providing only rice-based meals
30. The main goal of the Safe Motherhood Program is to:
    a) Reduce maternal mortality
    b) Increase fertility rates
    c) Provide free medicines
    d) Reduce hospital births

Answer Key

1. c) Checking pH of aspirated fluid
2. c) Side-lying
3. b) Assessment
4. b) 60-100 bpm
5. d) Hypertension
6. b) Stable angina
7. c) Tachycardia
8. a) Elevated creatinine
9. b) Assess airway and breathing
10. c) Elevate the affected limb
11. a) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
12. c) Knee-chest
13. a) Hypovolemic shock
14. b) 6 months
15. a) Postpartum hemorrhage
16. b) Phototherapy
17. b) Side-lying
18. c) Ringer’s lactate
19. a) Leg bowing
20. a) BCG
21. b) Decreased serotonin
22. b) Haloperidol
23. b) Monitor closely and ensure safety
24. b) Vomiting and diarrhea
25. b) Allow the ritual while gradually introducing coping strategies
26. a) Providing clean delivery services
27. c) Fecal-oral route
28. d) Mitigation
29. a) Exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months
30. a) Reduce maternal mortality

Here is TU IOM Teaching Hospital Staff Nurse Model Question (MCQ) – Set 2 for free Practice.

Medical-Surgical Nursing

31. What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?
    a) Aortic aneurysm
    b) Coronary artery thrombosis
    c) Pulmonary embolism
    d) Valvular heart disease
32. Which of the following is a complication of uncontrolled hypertension?
    a) Deep vein thrombosis
    b) Stroke
    c) Tuberculosis
    d) Appendicitis
33. Which of the following is the best position for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
    a) Supine
    b) Semi-Fowler’s
    c) Trendelenburg
    d) Lithotomy
34. The primary goal of fluid resuscitation in burn patients is:
    a) Prevent infection
    b) Maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion
    c) Reduce pain
    d) Improve wound healing
35. Which test is used to diagnose tuberculosis?
    a) Mantoux test
    b) Widal test
    c) Coombs test
    d) ELISA test

Obstetrics & Gynecology Nursing

36. A woman who has had three pregnancies but only two live births is classified as:
    a) G3P3
    b) G3P2
    c) G2P3
    d) G2P2
37. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
    a) Ovary
    b) Fallopian tube
    c) Cervix
    d) Peritoneum
38. A woman in labor suddenly complains of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. What condition should the nurse suspect?
    a) Eclampsia
    b) Uterine rupture
    c) Amniotic fluid embolism
    d) Placental abruption
39. Which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
    a) Uterine atony
    b) Retained placenta
    c) Vaginal laceration
    d) Coagulopathy
40. The first stage of labor begins with:
    a) Full cervical dilation
    b) Onset of true contractions
    c) Delivery of the baby
    d) Delivery of the placenta

Pediatric Nursing

41. The most common congenital heart defect is:
    a) Tetralogy of Fallot
    b) Atrial septal defect
    c) Ventricular septal defect
    d) Coarctation of the aorta
42. What is the normal head circumference of a newborn?
    a) 25-30 cm
    b) 30-35 cm
    c) 35-40 cm
    d) 40-45 cm
43. Which of the following is an early sign of dehydration in infants?
    a) Sunken fontanelle
    b) Decreased urine output
    c) Dry mucous membranes
    d) Increased respiratory rate
44. The most common cause of pneumonia in children under 5 years is:
    a) Bacterial infection
    b) Viral infection
    c) Fungal infection
    d) Parasitic infection
45. Which reflex is normally present in newborns but disappears by 4 months?
    a) Moro reflex
    b) Babinski reflex
    c) Palmar grasp reflex
    d) Tonic neck reflex

Mental Health Nursing

46. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
    a) Encourage deep breathing
    b) Leave them alone until they calm down
    c) Provide caffeine to reduce fatigue
    d) Encourage fast breathing to expel CO₂
47. What is the primary goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?
    a) Promote relaxation
    b) Change negative thought patterns
    c) Increase serotonin levels
    d) Avoid all stressors
48. Which disorder is characterized by repetitive, intrusive thoughts and compulsive behaviors?
    a) Generalized anxiety disorder
    b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
    c) Schizophrenia
    d) Bipolar disorder
49. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is primarily associated with schizophrenia?
    a) Increased dopamine
    b) Decreased serotonin
    c) Increased acetylcholine
    d) Decreased norepinephrine
50. A patient taking lithium for bipolar disorder should be monitored for:
    a) Hyperglycemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Thyroid dysfunction
    d) Hypertension

Community Health Nursing

51. The Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) covers which of the following diseases?
    a) Typhoid
    b) Measles
    c) Malaria
    d) Dengue
52. What is the incubation period of hepatitis B?
    a) 2-6 weeks
    b) 6-10 weeks
    c) 45-180 days
    d) 2-5 years
53. The most common mode of transmission for HIV is:
    a) Airborne
    b) Fecal-oral
    c) Sexual contact
    d) Vector-borne
54. The best way to prevent malaria is:
    a) Taking antibiotics
    b) Using insecticide-treated nets
    c) Wearing thick clothes
    d) Avoiding direct sunlight
55. Which vitamin is essential for preventing night blindness?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin C
    c) Vitamin D
    d) Vitamin K

Pharmacology

56. What is the preferred drug for treating an acute asthma attack?
    a) Montelukast
    b) Salbutamol
    c) Ipratropium
    d) Beclomethasone
57. What is the antidote for paracetamol overdose?
    a) Naloxone
    b) Acetylcysteine
    c) Atropine
    d) Flumazenil
58. Which class of drugs is commonly used to treat hypertension?
    a) Beta-blockers
    b) Antibiotics
    c) Antihistamines
    d) Proton pump inhibitors
59. What is the most common side effect of NSAIDs?
    a) Diarrhea
    b) Gastric ulcer
    c) Hypoglycemia
    d) Bradycardia
60. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
    a) Spironolactone
    b) Hydrochlorothiazide
    c) Furosemide
    d) Amlodipine

Answer Key

31. b) Coronary artery thrombosis
32. b) Stroke
33. b) Semi-Fowler’s
34. b) Maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion
35. a) Mantoux test
36. b) G3P2
37. b) Fallopian tube
38. c) Amniotic fluid embolism
39. a) Uterine atony
40. b) Onset of true contractions
41. c) Ventricular septal defect
42. b) 30-35 cm
43. b) Decreased urine output
44. b) Viral infection
45. a) Moro reflex
46. a) Encourage deep breathing
47. b) Change negative thought patterns
48. b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
49. a) Increased dopamine
50. c) Thyroid dysfunction
51. b) Measles
52. c) 45-180 days
53. c) Sexual contact
54. b) Using insecticide-treated nets
55. a) Vitamin A
56. b) Salbutamol
57. b) Acetylcysteine
58. a) Beta-blockers
59. b) Gastric ulcer
60. c) Furosemide

Here are TU IOM Teaching Hospital Staff Nurse Model Question (MCQ) Top 30 Questions to help you eaasily pass the next examination.

General Nursing & Medical-Surgical Nursing

1. What is the normal range of hemoglobin in adult females?
   a) 8-10 g/dL
   b) 10-12 g/dL
   c) 12-16 g/dL
   d) 14-18 g/dL
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with hyperkalemia?
   a) Hypocalcemia
   b) Hypernatremia
   c) Hyperphosphatemia
   d) Hypomagnesemia
3. Which of the following is the earliest sign of hypoxia?
   a) Cyanosis
   b) Restlessness
   c) Bradycardia
   d) Decreased urine output
4. What is the primary purpose of Fowler’s position?
   a) Reduce back pain
   b) Promote lung expansion
   c) Improve venous return
   d) Prevent pressure ulcers
5. Which nursing action is most appropriate for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?
   a) Administer oral antihistamine
   b) Give IV epinephrine
   c) Apply warm compress
   d) Monitor urine output

Obstetrics & Gynecology Nursing

6. Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection reflex?
   a) Estrogen
   b) Prolactin
   c) Oxytocin
   d) Progesterone
7. A postpartum mother should be advised to report which of the following signs immediately?
   a) Vaginal discharge lasting 4 weeks
   b) Breast engorgement
   c) Sudden heavy vaginal bleeding
   d) Mild abdominal cramping
8. What is the normal duration of a menstrual cycle?
   a) 14-20 days
   b) 21-35 days
   c) 36-42 days
   d) 28-45 days
9. Which of the following is a characteristic sign of pre-eclampsia?
   a) Hyperglycemia
   b) Proteinuria
   c) Hyperbilirubinemia
   d) Leukocytosis
10. The best position for a pregnant woman with hypotension is:
    a) Supine
    b) Left lateral
    c) Right lateral
    d) Trendelenburg

Pediatric Nursing

11. The first vaccine given to a newborn is:
    a) BCG
    b) OPV
    c) DPT
    d) Hepatitis B
12. What is the normal birth weight of a newborn?
    a) 1.5-2.0 kg
    b) 2.5-4.0 kg
    c) 4.5-5.0 kg
    d) 5.0-6.0 kg
13. The most common cause of diarrhea in children is:
    a) Rotavirus
    b) Salmonella
    c) E. coli
    d) Staphylococcus
14. Which condition is characterized by a barking cough in children?
    a) Pneumonia
    b) Croup
    c) Asthma
    d) Bronchitis
15. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is:
    a) 20-30 breaths per minute
    b) 30-60 breaths per minute
    c) 60-80 breaths per minute
    d) 10-20 breaths per minute

Mental Health Nursing

16. The drug of choice for bipolar disorder is:
    a) Lithium
    b) Haloperidol
    c) Fluoxetine
    d) Lorazepam
17. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the best nursing intervention?
    a) Tell them the voices are not real
    b) Encourage them to talk about their feelings
    c) Ignore their hallucinations
    d) Restrain the patient immediately
18. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with depression?
    a) Dopamine
    b) Serotonin
    c) Acetylcholine
    d) GABA
19. The priority nursing intervention for a suicidal patient is:
    a) Encouraging social interactions
    b) Removing harmful objects
    c) Allowing the patient to stay alone for self-reflection
    d) Giving sedatives
20. The main side effect of antipsychotic drugs is:
    a) Hypotension
    b) Extrapyramidal symptoms
    c) Hyperglycemia
    d) Tachycardia

Community Health Nursing

21. The best method to dispose of biomedical waste is:
    a) Open dumping
    b) Incineration
    c) Burying
    d) Recycling
22. ORS is primarily used to treat:
    a) Hypertension
    b) Dehydration
    c) Hyperglycemia
    d) Anemia
23. What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis?
    a) Bloodborne
    b) Airborne
    c) Vector-borne
    d) Fecal-oral
24. The recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding is:
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months
25. The first step in conducting a community health assessment is:
    a) Data collection
    b) Implementation
    c) Evaluation
    d) Planning

Pharmacology

26. The antidote for opioid overdose is:
    a) Atropine
    b) Naloxone
    c) Flumazenil
    d) Vitamin K
27. Which of the following drugs is a beta-blocker?
    a) Amlodipine
    b) Metoprolol
    c) Captopril
    d) Furosemide
28. What is the main side effect of loop diuretics?
    a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hypernatremia
    d) Hyperglycemia
29. Insulin should be administered:
    a) Intramuscularly
    b) Intravenously
    c) Subcutaneously
    d) Orally
30. Warfarin is an example of:
    a) Antihypertensive
    b) Anticoagulant
    c) Antibiotic
    d) Analgesic

Answer Key

1. c) 12-16 g/dL
2. c) Hyperphosphatemia
3. b) Restlessness
4. b) Promote lung expansion
5. b) Give IV epinephrine
6. c) Oxytocin
7. c) Sudden heavy vaginal bleeding
8. b) 21-35 days
9. b) Proteinuria
10. b) Left lateral
11. a) BCG
12. b) 2.5-4.0 kg
13. a) Rotavirus
14. b) Croup
15. b) 30-60 breaths per minute
16. a) Lithium
17. b) Encourage them to talk about their feelings
18. b) Serotonin
19. b) Removing harmful objects
20. b) Extrapyramidal symptoms
21. b) Incineration
22. b) Dehydration
23. b) Airborne
24. b) 6 months
25. a) Data collection
26. b) Naloxone
27. b) Metoprolol
28. b) Hypokalemia
29. c) Subcutaneously
30. b) Anticoagulant

Here are 20 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) designed for the Nepal Nursing Council (NNC) License Examination 2081.

1. Which vitamin deficiency leads to pernicious anemia?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D

2. What is the normal range of hemoglobin in adult females?

A) 9-11 g/dL
B) 10-12 g/dL
C) 12-16 g/dL
D) 14-18 g/dL

3. What is the universal precaution to prevent hospital-acquired infections?

A) Wearing gloves only
B) Hand hygiene practices
C) Using antibiotics for all patients
D) Keeping patients in isolation

4. The Apgar score is used to assess which of the following?

A) Fetal heart rate
B) Newborn’s adaptation to extrauterine life
C) Maternal blood pressure
D) Placental function

5. What is the main function of insulin in the body?

A) To break down fats
B) To lower blood sugar levels
C) To increase blood pressure
D) To digest proteins

6. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration in an infant?

A) Increased urination
B) Bulging fontanelle
C) Sunken eyes and dry mouth
D) Excessive saliva production

7. Which drug is used as the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?

A) Paracetamol
B) Epinephrine
C) Ibuprofen
D) Hydrocortisone

8. What is the primary mode of transmission of hepatitis B virus?

A) Airborne droplets
B) Contaminated food and water
C) Blood and body fluids
D) Vector-borne transmission

9. What is the recommended intramuscular (IM) injection site for infants?

A) Deltoid muscle
B) Ventrogluteal muscle
C) Vastus lateralis muscle
D) Dorsogluteal muscle

10. A patient with hypokalemia is likely to experience which symptom?

A) Hyperreflexia
B) Muscle weakness
C) Hypertension
D) Decreased urine output

11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hypoglycemia?

A) Sweating
B) Confusion
C) Bradycardia
D) Tremors

12. What is the normal respiratory rate of a newborn?

A) 10-20 breaths per minute
B) 20-30 breaths per minute
C) 30-60 breaths per minute
D) 60-80 breaths per minute

13. What does a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3 indicate?

A) Normal consciousness
B) Moderate brain injury
C) Deep coma or brain death
D) Mild confusion

14. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with kidney failure?

A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypokalemia

15. What is the normal pH range of arterial blood?

A) 6.8-7.2
B) 7.35-7.45
C) 7.5-8.0
D) 8.0-8.5

16. Which of the following best describes informed consent?

A) A doctor making decisions for the patient
B) The patient agreeing to a procedure without explanation
C) The patient’s voluntary agreement after receiving complete information
D) A family member signing the consent without the patient’s knowledge

17. A nurse suspects a patient has tuberculosis (TB). What is the best initial diagnostic test?

A) Chest X-ray
B) Sputum examination for acid-fast bacilli (AFB)
C) Tuberculin skin test
D) Complete blood count (CBC)

18. Which of the following is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A) Restlessness
B) Headache
C) Bradycardia and irregular respiration
D) Nausea and vomiting

19. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) should be advised to:

A) Avoid walking and remain immobile
B) Massage the affected limb
C) Use compression stockings and elevate the leg
D) Take high doses of aspirin

20. Which of the following vaccines is given at birth?

A) DPT
B) BCG
C) MMR
D) Hepatitis A

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These questions cover a variety of essential nursing topics, including medical-surgical nursing, maternal and child health, pharmacology, and professional ethics. Would you like me to refine or add more to this list?