---

SECTION A: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (20 Marks)

1. Which of the following is the normal body temperature of a healthy adult? a) 96.8°F
   b) 98.6°F
   c) 100.4°F
   d) 97.2°F
2. The best method to prevent hospital-acquired infections is: a) Wearing gloves at all times
   b) Frequent hand hygiene
   c) Using antiseptic sprays
   d) Wearing face masks
3. A nurse caring for an unconscious patient should prioritize which of the following? a) Range of motion exercises
   b) Frequent position changes
   c) Fluid intake monitoring
   d) Emotional support

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SECTION B: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (20 Marks)

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in chronic kidney disease? a) Hyperkalemia
   b) Hypokalemia
   c) Hypocalcemia
   d) Hypernatremia
5. The most important nursing intervention for a patient with myocardial infarction is: a) Encourage early ambulation
   b) Administer oxygen therapy
   c) Perform chest physiotherapy
   d) Give a high-protein diet
6. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) should be advised to: a) Increase oxygen flow to 6 L/min
   b) Avoid cold environments
   c) Drink less fluid
   d) Reduce carbohydrate intake

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SECTION C: MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

7. The ideal position for a pregnant woman in her third trimester to improve circulation is: a) Supine position
   b) Right lateral position
   c) Left lateral position
   d) Semi-Fowler’s position
8. The first vaccine given to a newborn is: a) BCG
   b) OPV
   c) DPT
   d) Hepatitis B
9. The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is: a) Retained placenta
   b) Uterine atony
   c) Cervical tear
   d) Coagulation disorders

---

SECTION D: COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

10. Which is the most effective method of family planning? a) Oral contraceptive pills
    b) Male condoms
    c) Intrauterine device (IUD)
    d) Natural family planning
11. The primary goal of health promotion is to: a) Treat diseases
    b) Prevent diseases
    c) Rehabilitate patients
    d) Provide palliative care
12. The incubation period of measles is: a) 3-5 days
    b) 7-14 days
    c) 10-20 days
    d) 21-30 days

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SECTION E: MENTAL HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

13. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. The best nursing intervention is: a) Ignore the hallucinations
    b) Challenge the patient’s belief
    c) Acknowledge the patient’s experience
    d) Administer sedatives
14. Lithium is commonly used to treat: a) Anxiety disorders
    b) Bipolar disorder
    c) Schizophrenia
    d) Depression
15. The most common side effect of benzodiazepines is: a) Hypertension
    b) Sedation
    c) Diarrhea
    d) Tachycardia

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ANSWER KEY

1. b) 98.6°F
2. b) Frequent hand hygiene
3. b) Frequent position changes
4. a) Hyperkalemia
5. b) Administer oxygen therapy
6. b) Avoid cold environments
7. c) Left lateral position
8. a) BCG
9. b) Uterine atony
10. c) Intrauterine device (IUD)
11. b) Prevent diseases
12. b) 7-14 days
13. c) Acknowledge the patient’s experience
14. b) Bipolar disorder
15. b) Sedation

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SECTION A: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (20 Marks)

1. Which of the following is the normal body temperature of a healthy adult? a) 96.8°F
   b) 98.6°F
   c) 100.4°F
   d) 97.2°F
2. The best method to prevent hospital-acquired infections is: a) Wearing gloves at all times
   b) Frequent hand hygiene
   c) Using antiseptic sprays
   d) Wearing face masks
3. A nurse caring for an unconscious patient should prioritize which of the following? a) Range of motion exercises
   b) Frequent position changes
   c) Fluid intake monitoring
   d) Emotional support
4. The normal range of respiratory rate for an adult is: a) 8-12 breaths per minute
   b) 12-20 breaths per minute
   c) 20-28 breaths per minute
   d) 28-36 breaths per minute

---

SECTION B: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (20 Marks)

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in chronic kidney disease? a) Hyperkalemia
   b) Hypokalemia
   c) Hypocalcemia
   d) Hypernatremia
6. The most important nursing intervention for a patient with myocardial infarction is: a) Encourage early ambulation
   b) Administer oxygen therapy
   c) Perform chest physiotherapy
   d) Give a high-protein diet
7. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) should be advised to: a) Increase oxygen flow to 6 L/min
   b) Avoid cold environments
   c) Drink less fluid
   d) Reduce carbohydrate intake
8. The first sign of hypoglycemia is: a) Bradycardia
   b) Diaphoresis
   c) Hypertension
   d) Hyperthermia

---

SECTION C: MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

9. The ideal position for a pregnant woman in her third trimester to improve circulation is: a) Supine position
   b) Right lateral position
   c) Left lateral position
   d) Semi-Fowler’s position
10. The first vaccine given to a newborn is: a) BCG
    b) OPV
    c) DPT
    d) Hepatitis B
11. The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is: a) Retained placenta
    b) Uterine atony
    c) Cervical tear
    d) Coagulation disorders
12. What is the normal heart rate range for a newborn? a) 60-80 bpm
    b) 80-100 bpm
    c) 100-160 bpm
    d) 160-200 bpm

---

SECTION D: COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

13. Which is the most effective method of family planning? a) Oral contraceptive pills
    b) Male condoms
    c) Intrauterine device (IUD)
    d) Natural family planning
14. The primary goal of health promotion is to: a) Treat diseases
    b) Prevent diseases
    c) Rehabilitate patients
    d) Provide palliative care
15. The incubation period of measles is: a) 3-5 days
    b) 7-14 days
    c) 10-20 days
    d) 21-30 days
16. Which vitamin deficiency is associated with night blindness? a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin B1
    c) Vitamin C
    d) Vitamin D

---

SECTION E: MENTAL HEALTH NURSING (20 Marks)

17. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. The best nursing intervention is: a) Ignore the hallucinations
    b) Challenge the patient’s belief
    c) Acknowledge the patient’s experience
    d) Administer sedatives
18. Lithium is commonly used to treat: a) Anxiety disorders
    b) Bipolar disorder
    c) Schizophrenia
    d) Depression
19. The most common side effect of benzodiazepines is: a) Hypertension
    b) Sedation
    c) Diarrhea
    d) Tachycardia
20. The therapeutic level of lithium is: a) 0.2-0.5 mEq/L
    b) 0.6-1.2 mEq/L
    c) 1.5-2.0 mEq/L
    d) 2.5-3.0 mEq/L

---

ANSWER KEY

1. b) 98.6°F
2. b) Frequent hand hygiene
3. b) Frequent position changes
4. b) 12-20 breaths per minute
5. a) Hyperkalemia
6. b) Administer oxygen therapy
7. b) Avoid cold environments
8. b) Diaphoresis
9. c) Left lateral position
10. a) BCG
11. b) Uterine atony
12. c) 100-160 bpm
13. c) Intrauterine device (IUD)
14. b) Prevent diseases
15. b) 7-14 days
16. a) Vitamin A
17. c) Acknowledge the patient’s experience
18. b) Bipolar disorder
19. b) Sedation
20. b) 0.6-1.2 mEq/L

---

This model paper provides a comprehensive overview of the types of questions that may appear in the Puducherry Nursing Council Licensing Examination. Preparing thoroughly in these key nursing subjects will help in successfully clearing the exam.

These are Union Territories Nursing Council License Examination Model Questions (Part 2). Check part 1 here.

7. Pharmacology

26. The antidote for opioid overdose is:
    a) Atropine
    b) Naloxone
    c) Flumazenil
    d) Protamine sulfate
27. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
    a) Furosemide
    b) Spironolactone
    c) Hydrochlorothiazide
    d) Acetazolamide
28. The drug commonly used to treat tuberculosis (TB) is:
    a) Rifampicin
    b) Acyclovir
    c) Ceftriaxone
    d) Amoxicillin
29. A patient on warfarin therapy should avoid excessive intake of:
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin B12
    c) Vitamin K
    d) Vitamin C
30. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?
    a) Losartan
    b) Amlodipine
    c) Metoprolol
    d) Clonidine

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8. Emergency & Critical Care Nursing

31. The universal sign of choking is:
    a) Coughing
    b) Holding the throat
    c) Cyanosis
    d) Wheezing
32. In cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the compression-to-ventilation ratio for an adult is:
    a) 15:2
    b) 30:2
    c) 45:2
    d) 60:2
33. Which of the following is a sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
    a) Hypotension
    b) Bradycardia
    c) Tachypnea
    d) Hypertension with bradycardia
34. The best initial treatment for anaphylactic shock is:
    a) Hydrocortisone
    b) Epinephrine
    c) Dopamine
    d) Antihistamines
35. In burn management, the Parkland formula is used to calculate:
    a) Pain management dosage
    b) Nutritional requirements
    c) Fluid resuscitation
    d) Infection control measures

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9. Medical-Surgical Nursing (Continued)

36. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with tetany and muscle cramps?
    a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypocalcemia
    c) Hypernatremia
    d) Hypomagnesemia
37. The best diagnostic test for myocardial infarction (MI) is:
    a) ECG
    b) Chest X-ray
    c) Troponin levels
    d) Complete blood count
38. Cushing’s syndrome is caused by an excess of:
    a) Insulin
    b) Cortisol
    c) Thyroxine
    d) Aldosterone
39. The most common complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is:
    a) Myocardial infarction
    b) Pulmonary embolism
    c) Stroke
    d) Hypertension
40. Which condition is an example of an autoimmune disorder?
    a) Tuberculosis
    b) Rheumatoid arthritis
    c) Pneumonia
    d) Liver cirrhosis

---

10. Obstetric & Gynecologic Nursing (Continued)

41. The best position for a patient with severe preeclampsia is:
    a) Supine
    b) Left lateral
    c) High Fowler’s
    d) Trendelenburg
42. The main function of oxytocin during labor is:
    a) Reduce blood pressure
    b) Induce uterine contractions
    c) Increase fetal movement
    d) Maintain pregnancy
43. Ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in the:
    a) Ovary
    b) Uterus
    c) Fallopian tube
    d) Cervix
44. The most common cause of maternal death in pregnancy is:
    a) Infections
    b) Postpartum hemorrhage
    c) Pre-eclampsia
    d) Embolism
45. The recommended folic acid intake for pregnant women to prevent neural tube defects is:
    a) 100 mcg/day
    b) 200 mcg/day
    c) 400 mcg/day
    d) 800 mcg/day

---

11. Pediatric Nursing (Continued)

46. The first permanent tooth to erupt is the:
    a) Central incisor
    b) Lateral incisor
    c) First molar
    d) Canine
47. The best treatment for severe dehydration in children due to diarrhea is:
    a) Oral rehydration therapy (ORS)
    b) IV normal saline
    c) Anti-diarrheal medication
    d) Increased fluid intake
48. A newborn’s APGAR score is assessed at:
    a) 1 minute and 3 minutes
    b) 1 minute and 5 minutes
    c) 5 minutes and 10 minutes
    d) 10 minutes and 15 minutes
49. The most common cause of death in children under 5 years is:
    a) Pneumonia
    b) Malaria
    c) Tuberculosis
    d) Hepatitis
50. A 3-year-old child should be able to:
    a) Write their name
    b) Tie shoelaces
    c) Ride a tricycle
    d) Read sentences

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Answer Key (Questions 26-50)

26. b) Naloxone
27. a) Furosemide
28. a) Rifampicin
29. c) Vitamin K
30. c) Metoprolol
31. b) Holding the throat
32. b) 30:2
33. d) Hypertension with bradycardia
34. b) Epinephrine
35. c) Fluid resuscitation
36. b) Hypocalcemia
37. c) Troponin levels
38. b) Cortisol
39. b) Pulmonary embolism
40. b) Rheumatoid arthritis
41. b) Left lateral
42. b) Induce uterine contractions
43. c) Fallopian tube
44. b) Postpartum hemorrhage
45. c) 400 mcg/day
46. c) First molar
47. a) Oral rehydration therapy (ORS)
48. b) 1 minute and 5 minutes
49. a) Pneumonia
50. c) Ride a tricycle

Union Territories Nursing Council License Examination Model Questions (2025) according to topic. Answer keys are in the end.

1. Fundamentals of Nursing

1. The primary purpose of hand hygiene in healthcare is to:
   a) Keep hands clean
   b) Reduce healthcare-associated infections
   c) Prevent dryness of hands
   d) Maintain pleasant odor
2. What is the normal range of body temperature in Celsius?
   a) 35.0 – 35.5°C
   b) 36.1 – 37.2°C
   c) 38.1 – 39.5°C
   d) 34.0 – 35.0°C
3. The best site to check for an adult’s pulse during a cardiac arrest is:
   a) Radial artery
   b) Brachial artery
   c) Carotid artery
   d) Femoral artery
4. A nurse is providing oral care to an unconscious patient. The best position to prevent aspiration is:
   a) Supine
   b) Side-lying
   c) Prone
   d) High Fowler’s
5. The first step in the nursing process is:
   a) Implementation
   b) Diagnosis
   c) Planning
   d) Assessment
6. The universal precautions are mainly designed to protect against:
   a) Respiratory infections
   b) Bloodborne pathogens
   c) Foodborne illnesses
   d) Vector-borne diseases
7. The most accurate method to measure core body temperature is:
   a) Oral thermometer
   b) Tympanic thermometer
   c) Rectal thermometer
   d) Axillary thermometer

---

2. Medical-Surgical Nursing

8. Which is the first sign of hypovolemic shock?
   a) Bradycardia
   b) Decreased respiratory rate
   c) Tachycardia
   d) Increased blood pressure
9. The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is:
   a) Supine
   b) Fowler’s position
   c) Trendelenburg
   d) Lithotomy
10. A patient with diabetes mellitus is experiencing confusion, sweating, and shakiness. The nurse should:
    a) Check blood glucose levels
    b) Administer insulin
    c) Encourage exercise
    d) Withhold food
11. Anemia is most commonly caused by:
    a) Vitamin A deficiency
    b) Low hemoglobin levels
    c) High white blood cells
    d) Increased platelet count
12. The first-line treatment for acute asthma attack is:
    a) Antihistamines
    b) Beta-agonists (e.g., Salbutamol)
    c) Antibiotics
    d) Corticosteroids

---

3. Obstetric & Gynecologic Nursing

13. The normal fetal heart rate range is:
    a) 100-120 bpm
    b) 120-160 bpm
    c) 60-100 bpm
    d) 160-200 bpm
14. The first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity in preeclampsia treatment is:
    a) Hypotension
    b) Loss of deep tendon reflexes
    c) Increased urine output
    d) Hyperthermia
15. The recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding is:
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months
16. The best position for a woman in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord is:
    a) Supine
    b) Lithotomy
    c) Knee-chest
    d) Trendelenburg
17. The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is:
    a) Uterine atony
    b) Sepsis
    c) Thromboembolism
    d) Hypertension

---

4. Pediatric Nursing

18. The first vaccine given at birth in the National Immunization Program is:
    a) DPT
    b) Hepatitis B
    c) BCG
    d) MMR
19. Koplik’s spots are associated with:
    a) Measles
    b) Mumps
    c) Rubella
    d) Chickenpox
20. A baby is considered low birth weight (LBW) if the weight is:
    a) Below 2.5 kg
    b) Below 3.5 kg
    c) Below 4.5 kg
    d) Below 5.0 kg

---

5. Mental Health Nursing

21. Which neurotransmitter is decreased in depression?
    a) Dopamine
    b) Acetylcholine
    c) Serotonin
    d) Glutamate
22. The priority nursing intervention for a patient with suicidal thoughts is:
    a) Offer group therapy
    b) Monitor closely and ensure safety
    c) Encourage social isolation
    d) Ignore the behavior
23. The most common side effect of antipsychotic medications is:
    a) Weight loss
    b) Hypertension
    c) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
    d) Hyperactivity

---

6. Community Health Nursing

24. The primary mode of transmission of Hepatitis A is:
    a) Bloodborne
    b) Sexual contact
    c) Airborne
    d) Fecal-oral route
25. The best strategy to prevent neonatal tetanus is:
    a) Early cord clamping
    b) Exclusive breastfeeding
    c) Tetanus immunization during pregnancy
    d) Delaying vaccinations

---

Answer Key

1. b) Reduce healthcare-associated infections
2. b) 36.1 – 37.2°C
3. c) Carotid artery
4. b) Side-lying
5. d) Assessment
6. b) Bloodborne pathogens
7. c) Rectal thermometer
8. c) Tachycardia
9. b) Fowler’s position
10. a) Check blood glucose levels
11. b) Low hemoglobin levels
12. b) Beta-agonists (e.g., Salbutamol)
13. b) 120-160 bpm
14. b) Loss of deep tendon reflexes
15. b) 6 months
16. c) Knee-chest
17. a) Uterine atony
18. c) BCG
19. a) Measles
20. a) Below 2.5 kg
21. c) Serotonin
22. b) Monitor closely and ensure safety
23. c) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
24. d) Fecal-oral route
25. c) Tetanus immunization during pregnancy

Nepal Nursing Council (NNC) License examination is tough examination and you need to pactice these Nepal Nursing Council (NNC) License examination model questions to pass them easily without a single second attempt. .So here we begin:

Fundamentals of Nursing

1. The best method to confirm correct placement of a nasogastric tube is:
   a) Injecting air and auscultating over the stomach
   b) Measuring tube length
   c) Checking pH of aspirated fluid
   d) Observing for patient discomfort
2. A nurse is assisting a bedridden patient with oral hygiene. The best position to prevent aspiration is:
   a) Supine
   b) Prone
   c) Side-lying
   d) High-Fowler’s
3. The first step in the nursing process is:
   a) Implementation
   b) Assessment
   c) Diagnosis
   d) Evaluation
4. The normal range for an adult pulse rate is:
   a) 40-60 bpm
   b) 60-100 bpm
   c) 100-120 bpm
   d) 120-140 bpm
5. A nurse documents a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg. This is classified as:
   a) Hypotension
   b) Normal blood pressure
   c) Prehypertension
   d) Hypertension

Medical-Surgical Nursing

6. Which of the following conditions is characterized by chest pain relieved by rest or nitroglycerin?
   a) Myocardial infarction
   b) Stable angina
   c) Pulmonary embolism
   d) Pericarditis
7. The primary sign of hypovolemic shock is:
   a) Bradycardia
   b) Hypertension
   c) Tachycardia
   d) Normal skin color
8. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates renal failure?
   a) Elevated creatinine
   b) Low hemoglobin
   c) Low blood glucose
   d) Decreased sodium
9. The first priority for a patient with acute stroke is:
   a) Administer IV fluids
   b) Assess airway and breathing
   c) Obtain CT scan
   d) Check blood sugar level
10. A nurse suspects a patient has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The best initial intervention is:
    a) Encourage walking
    b) Massage the affected leg
    c) Elevate the affected limb
    d) Apply ice packs

Obstetric & Gynecologic Nursing

11. The first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity in preeclampsia treatment is:
    a) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
    b) Hypertension
    c) Increased urine output
    d) Hyperthermia
12. The ideal position for a woman in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord is:
    a) Lithotomy
    b) Supine
    c) Knee-chest
    d) Side-lying
13. The most common complication of postpartum hemorrhage is:
    a) Hypovolemic shock
    b) Hypertension
    c) Hypercoagulation
    d) Bradycardia
14. The recommended exclusive breastfeeding duration for infants is:
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months
15. The most common cause of maternal mortality worldwide is:
    a) Postpartum hemorrhage
    b) Eclampsia
    c) Sepsis
    d) Obstructed labor

Pediatric Nursing

16. A newborn with jaundice should be treated with:
    a) Iron supplements
    b) Phototherapy
    c) Vitamin K injection
    d) Blood transfusion
17. Which is the best position for an infant after feeding to prevent regurgitation?
    a) Supine
    b) Side-lying
    c) Prone
    d) Trendelenburg
18. A child with severe dehydration due to diarrhea requires which IV fluid initially?
    a) 0.9% Normal saline
    b) Dextrose 5%
    c) Ringer’s lactate
    d) Half-normal saline
19. The first sign of rickets in children is:
    a) Leg bowing
    b) Delayed fontanelle closure
    c) Enlarged liver
    d) Excessive crying
20. A vaccine given at birth in the Nepal National Immunization Program is:
    a) BCG
    b) DPT
    c) Hepatitis A
    d) MMR

Mental Health Nursing

21. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is linked to depression?
    a) Increased dopamine
    b) Decreased serotonin
    c) Increased acetylcholine
    d) Decreased norepinephrine
22. The first-line drug for schizophrenia is:
    a) Fluoxetine
    b) Haloperidol
    c) Lorazepam
    d) Amitriptyline
23. The priority intervention for a patient experiencing suicidal thoughts is:
    a) Provide reassurance
    b) Monitor closely and ensure safety
    c) Encourage self-reflection
    d) Offer group therapy
24. Which is an early sign of lithium toxicity?
    a) Seizures
    b) Vomiting and diarrhea
    c) Hallucinations
    d) Bradycardia
25. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes hands. The best nursing approach is:
    a) Stop the behavior immediately
    b) Allow the ritual while gradually introducing coping strategies
    c) Ignore the behavior
    d) Encourage complete isolation

Community Health Nursing

26. The best way to prevent neonatal tetanus is:
    a) Providing clean delivery services
    b) Breastfeeding immediately
    c) Delaying cord cutting
    d) Giving iron supplements
27. The primary mode of transmission of hepatitis A is:
    a) Sexual contact
    b) Blood transfusion
    c) Fecal-oral route
    d) Airborne droplets
28. The first step in disaster management is:
    a) Recovery
    b) Response
    c) Preparedness
    d) Mitigation
29. A key strategy to prevent malnutrition in children under 5 years is:
    a) Exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months
    b) Introducing formula early
    c) Delaying complementary feeding
    d) Providing only rice-based meals
30. The main goal of the Safe Motherhood Program is to:
    a) Reduce maternal mortality
    b) Increase fertility rates
    c) Provide free medicines
    d) Reduce hospital births

Answer Key

1. c) Checking pH of aspirated fluid
2. c) Side-lying
3. b) Assessment
4. b) 60-100 bpm
5. d) Hypertension
6. b) Stable angina
7. c) Tachycardia
8. a) Elevated creatinine
9. b) Assess airway and breathing
10. c) Elevate the affected limb
11. a) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
12. c) Knee-chest
13. a) Hypovolemic shock
14. b) 6 months
15. a) Postpartum hemorrhage
16. b) Phototherapy
17. b) Side-lying
18. c) Ringer’s lactate
19. a) Leg bowing
20. a) BCG
21. b) Decreased serotonin
22. b) Haloperidol
23. b) Monitor closely and ensure safety
24. b) Vomiting and diarrhea
25. b) Allow the ritual while gradually introducing coping strategies
26. a) Providing clean delivery services
27. c) Fecal-oral route
28. d) Mitigation
29. a) Exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months
30. a) Reduce maternal mortality

Here is TU IOM Teaching Hospital Staff Nurse Model Question (MCQ) – Set 2 for free Practice.

Medical-Surgical Nursing

31. What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?
    a) Aortic aneurysm
    b) Coronary artery thrombosis
    c) Pulmonary embolism
    d) Valvular heart disease
32. Which of the following is a complication of uncontrolled hypertension?
    a) Deep vein thrombosis
    b) Stroke
    c) Tuberculosis
    d) Appendicitis
33. Which of the following is the best position for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
    a) Supine
    b) Semi-Fowler’s
    c) Trendelenburg
    d) Lithotomy
34. The primary goal of fluid resuscitation in burn patients is:
    a) Prevent infection
    b) Maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion
    c) Reduce pain
    d) Improve wound healing
35. Which test is used to diagnose tuberculosis?
    a) Mantoux test
    b) Widal test
    c) Coombs test
    d) ELISA test

Obstetrics & Gynecology Nursing

36. A woman who has had three pregnancies but only two live births is classified as:
    a) G3P3
    b) G3P2
    c) G2P3
    d) G2P2
37. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
    a) Ovary
    b) Fallopian tube
    c) Cervix
    d) Peritoneum
38. A woman in labor suddenly complains of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. What condition should the nurse suspect?
    a) Eclampsia
    b) Uterine rupture
    c) Amniotic fluid embolism
    d) Placental abruption
39. Which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
    a) Uterine atony
    b) Retained placenta
    c) Vaginal laceration
    d) Coagulopathy
40. The first stage of labor begins with:
    a) Full cervical dilation
    b) Onset of true contractions
    c) Delivery of the baby
    d) Delivery of the placenta

Pediatric Nursing

41. The most common congenital heart defect is:
    a) Tetralogy of Fallot
    b) Atrial septal defect
    c) Ventricular septal defect
    d) Coarctation of the aorta
42. What is the normal head circumference of a newborn?
    a) 25-30 cm
    b) 30-35 cm
    c) 35-40 cm
    d) 40-45 cm
43. Which of the following is an early sign of dehydration in infants?
    a) Sunken fontanelle
    b) Decreased urine output
    c) Dry mucous membranes
    d) Increased respiratory rate
44. The most common cause of pneumonia in children under 5 years is:
    a) Bacterial infection
    b) Viral infection
    c) Fungal infection
    d) Parasitic infection
45. Which reflex is normally present in newborns but disappears by 4 months?
    a) Moro reflex
    b) Babinski reflex
    c) Palmar grasp reflex
    d) Tonic neck reflex

Mental Health Nursing

46. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
    a) Encourage deep breathing
    b) Leave them alone until they calm down
    c) Provide caffeine to reduce fatigue
    d) Encourage fast breathing to expel CO₂
47. What is the primary goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?
    a) Promote relaxation
    b) Change negative thought patterns
    c) Increase serotonin levels
    d) Avoid all stressors
48. Which disorder is characterized by repetitive, intrusive thoughts and compulsive behaviors?
    a) Generalized anxiety disorder
    b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
    c) Schizophrenia
    d) Bipolar disorder
49. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is primarily associated with schizophrenia?
    a) Increased dopamine
    b) Decreased serotonin
    c) Increased acetylcholine
    d) Decreased norepinephrine
50. A patient taking lithium for bipolar disorder should be monitored for:
    a) Hyperglycemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Thyroid dysfunction
    d) Hypertension

Community Health Nursing

51. The Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) covers which of the following diseases?
    a) Typhoid
    b) Measles
    c) Malaria
    d) Dengue
52. What is the incubation period of hepatitis B?
    a) 2-6 weeks
    b) 6-10 weeks
    c) 45-180 days
    d) 2-5 years
53. The most common mode of transmission for HIV is:
    a) Airborne
    b) Fecal-oral
    c) Sexual contact
    d) Vector-borne
54. The best way to prevent malaria is:
    a) Taking antibiotics
    b) Using insecticide-treated nets
    c) Wearing thick clothes
    d) Avoiding direct sunlight
55. Which vitamin is essential for preventing night blindness?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin C
    c) Vitamin D
    d) Vitamin K

Pharmacology

56. What is the preferred drug for treating an acute asthma attack?
    a) Montelukast
    b) Salbutamol
    c) Ipratropium
    d) Beclomethasone
57. What is the antidote for paracetamol overdose?
    a) Naloxone
    b) Acetylcysteine
    c) Atropine
    d) Flumazenil
58. Which class of drugs is commonly used to treat hypertension?
    a) Beta-blockers
    b) Antibiotics
    c) Antihistamines
    d) Proton pump inhibitors
59. What is the most common side effect of NSAIDs?
    a) Diarrhea
    b) Gastric ulcer
    c) Hypoglycemia
    d) Bradycardia
60. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
    a) Spironolactone
    b) Hydrochlorothiazide
    c) Furosemide
    d) Amlodipine

Answer Key

31. b) Coronary artery thrombosis
32. b) Stroke
33. b) Semi-Fowler’s
34. b) Maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion
35. a) Mantoux test
36. b) G3P2
37. b) Fallopian tube
38. c) Amniotic fluid embolism
39. a) Uterine atony
40. b) Onset of true contractions
41. c) Ventricular septal defect
42. b) 30-35 cm
43. b) Decreased urine output
44. b) Viral infection
45. a) Moro reflex
46. a) Encourage deep breathing
47. b) Change negative thought patterns
48. b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
49. a) Increased dopamine
50. c) Thyroid dysfunction
51. b) Measles
52. c) 45-180 days
53. c) Sexual contact
54. b) Using insecticide-treated nets
55. a) Vitamin A
56. b) Salbutamol
57. b) Acetylcysteine
58. a) Beta-blockers
59. b) Gastric ulcer
60. c) Furosemide