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Ultimate Guide to Passing the Nepal Medical Council Licensing Examination (NMCLE)

The Nepal Medical Council Licensing Examination (NMCLE) is one of the most significant hurdles that medical graduates must clear to practice medicine in Nepal. This examination is designed to assess your knowledge, clinical skills, and ability to apply medical concepts in real-world situations. With the exam’s recent transition to a computerized format, the challenge has evolved, making preparation more critical than ever. Whether you’re a fresh graduate or an international medical student, a well-structured study plan and the right resources can set you on the path to success. In this guide, we’ll explore the key aspects of the NMCLE and provide strategies that will help you not only pass the exam but excel at it.

What Is the Nepal Medical Council Licensing Examination (NMCLE)?

The NMCLE is a standardized exam administered by the Nepal Medical Council to ensure that medical professionals possess the necessary knowledge and competency to practice safely and effectively in Nepal. The exam is required for all foreign-trained and Nepalese medical graduates wishing to work as a medical officer in the country.

With medical professionals coming from diverse educational backgrounds, the NMCLE serves to standardize the skill set and knowledge base required to work in the healthcare system of Nepal. The exam is held every 4 months and is open to all medical graduates who have completed their internship at an NMC-recognized medical institution.

Exam Format and Structure

The NMCLE follows a computerized testing format, which includes both Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) and Clinical Scenario Questions (CSQs). While the introduction of this digital format brings several advantages, it also means that candidates must adapt to navigating the online testing interface, including switching between MCQs and CSQs. Here’s a detailed breakdown of the exam format:

  • Duration: 3 hours
  • Total Marks: 180
  • Passing Marks: 50% (at least 90 marks required to pass)
  • MCQs: 130 questions (1 mark each)
  • CSQs: 10 questions (5 marks each)

Mark Distribution by Subject

The exam covers an extensive range of topics, drawn from the entire MBBS syllabus. Below is a detailed breakdown of the subjects and their mark distribution:

  1. MCQs (1 mark each)
    • Anatomy: 5 questions
    • Physiology: 5 questions
    • Pharmacology: 4 questions
    • Biochemistry: 5 questions
    • Microbiology: 4 questions
    • Pathology: 7 questions
    • Orthopedics: 6 questions
    • Surgery: 13 questions
    • Medicine: 13 questions
    • Pediatrics: 10 questions
    • Obstetrics and Gynecology: 12 questions
    • Community Medicine: 10 questions
    • Anesthesia: 8 questions
    • Psychiatry: 2 questions
    • Forensic Medicine: 6 questions
    • ENT: 6 questions
    • Ophthalmology: 6 questions
    • Dermatology: 3 questions
    • Dentistry: 2 questions
    • Radiology: 3 questions
  2. CSQs (5 marks each)
    • Basic Science Subjects: 1 question
    • Orthopedics: 1 question
    • Surgery: 2 questions
    • Medicine: 2 questions
    • Pediatrics: 2 questions
    • Obstetrics and Gynecology: 2 questions

In total, the NMCLE consists of 130 MCQs and 10 CSQs, each testing different aspects of medical knowledge and clinical reasoning.

Preparation Tips: How to Study for the NMCLE

To successfully pass the NMCLE, you must adopt a strategic approach to your preparation. The NMCLE is designed to test the entire MBBS syllabus, so comprehensive study across a wide range of subjects is essential. Here are some key tips to help you prepare:

1. Start Early and Stay Consistent

Starting your preparation early gives you ample time to cover all subjects without feeling rushed. Aim to begin your preparation as soon as your internship begins. During your internship, you’ll already be exposed to clinical situations, which will help reinforce your theoretical knowledge. Try to allocate specific time slots for revision, even if it’s just 30 minutes a day.

2. Familiarize Yourself with the Exam Format

Understanding the NMCLE format is crucial. Practice with sample papers or mock exams to get a feel for the computerized test environment. Familiarize yourself with the MCQ and CSQ formats so that you’re comfortable switching between them during the actual exam.

Several books have been designed specifically for the NMCLE, which can serve as essential study aids. These include:

  • “NMCLE in a Nutshell”: This comprehensive guide provides a concise overview of the key topics you need to know for the exam.
  • “First Aid Step 1”: A must-have for any medical student, this book covers fundamental concepts across various subjects.
  • “Sharad Chandra Quick Review of PGMEE”: This book is especially helpful for students preparing for multiple medical exams, including the NMCLE.

In addition to these resources, online platforms like StatPearls and Edusanjal offer updated study materials, practice questions, and tips specific to the NMCLE.

4. Revise Key Topics from Each Subject

The NMCLE tests your knowledge across a wide variety of medical subjects, and each subject requires focused attention. Pay extra attention to the following areas:

  • Basic Science Subjects: Anatomy, Physiology, Pharmacology, Biochemistry, and Microbiology. These subjects are foundational and often have questions that test your theoretical knowledge.
  • Clinical Subjects: Surgery, Medicine, Pediatrics, Obstetrics, and Gynecology. These are heavily weighted in the exam, and understanding practical applications is crucial.
  • Specialized Subjects: Topics such as Orthopedics, Psychiatry, and Anesthesia require a practical understanding of clinical management.

5. Practice MCQs and CSQs Regularly

Practicing with MCQs and CSQs will help you refine your answering techniques. Focus on the types of questions that you struggle with and revise them regularly. Many online platforms and study groups offer practice tests that simulate the actual exam.

6. Stay Healthy and Manage Stress

Mental and physical well-being are essential during your preparation phase. Ensure you’re getting enough rest, eating well, and engaging in physical activities to keep your energy levels high. Managing stress is equally important—practice mindfulness, and take short breaks when needed. Balancing study and relaxation will help you stay focused and calm during the exam.

Time Management During the Exam

One of the most crucial aspects of any exam is managing your time effectively. With a 3-hour duration for 180 questions, you need to pace yourself to avoid rushing at the end. Here’s a simple time-management strategy:

  • MCQs: Allocate about 90 minutes for the 130 MCQs. Aim to answer the easier questions quickly and revisit the harder ones later.
  • CSQs: Spend about 30 minutes on the 10 CSQs, ensuring that you carefully read each clinical scenario before selecting your answer.

Keep track of the time as you progress, and don’t spend too long on any single question. The computerized format allows you to change answers, so mark questions that you’re unsure of and return to them at the end.

What to Do If You Fail the NMCLE

Although passing the NMCLE is the goal, it’s important to accept that failure is sometimes part of the journey. If you do not pass, take time to evaluate your preparation strategy. Reflect on the areas where you were weak, and make a detailed plan to address these gaps before reattempting the exam. Remember, persistence is key.

Final Thoughts: Stay Positive and Focused

The NMCLE is undoubtedly a challenging examination, but with a structured study plan, consistent effort, and a positive mindset, you can successfully pass the exam. Whether you are preparing for your first attempt or retaking the exam, maintaining a calm and determined attitude will make all the difference. Prepare early, stay disciplined, and trust your preparation.

Good luck with your NMCLE preparation journey! With dedication and hard work, success will surely follow.

Model Question Set – NMCLE Licensing Examination 2025

Anatomy

  1. Which artery is the main supplier of blood to the brain?
    a) Carotid artery
    b) Femoral artery
    c) Radial artery
    d) Ulnar artery
  2. The brachial plexus originates from which spinal nerves?
    a) C3-C7
    b) C5-T1
    c) L1-L5
    d) T1-T5

Physiology

  1. What is the normal resting cardiac output in an adult?
    a) 3 L/min
    b) 5 L/min
    c) 8 L/min
    d) 10 L/min
  2. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary?
    a) Prolactin
    b) Oxytocin
    c) Insulin
    d) Aldosterone

Pharmacology

  1. Which of the following drugs is a beta-blocker?
    a) Losartan
    b) Metoprolol
    c) Amlodipine
    d) Digoxin
  2. Warfarin acts by inhibiting which vitamin-dependent clotting factors?
    a) I, II, V, VIII
    b) II, VII, IX, X
    c) XI, XII, XIII
    d) III, IV, VII, X

Biochemistry

  1. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
    a) Glycine
    b) Lysine
    c) Proline
    d) Tyrosine
  2. The end product of purine metabolism in humans is:
    a) Urea
    b) Uric acid
    c) Creatinine
    d) Ammonia

Pathology

  1. Which type of necrosis is commonly seen in tuberculosis?
    a) Liquefactive
    b) Coagulative
    c) Caseous
    d) Fat
  2. A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) most likely has which chromosomal abnormality?
    a) Philadelphia chromosome
    b) Trisomy 21
    c) Turner syndrome
    d) Patau syndrome

Microbiology

  1. Gram-negative bacteria possess which unique cell wall component?
    a) Peptidoglycan
    b) Lipopolysaccharide
    c) Teichoic acid
    d) Mycolic acid
  2. Which organism causes gas gangrene?
    a) Clostridium difficile
    b) Clostridium perfringens
    c) Clostridium tetani
    d) Staphylococcus aureus

Forensic Medicine

  1. Rigor mortis first starts in which muscle group?
    a) Face
    b) Chest
    c) Abdomen
    d) Legs
  2. What is the legal age of consent for medical procedures in most countries?
    a) 14 years
    b) 16 years
    c) 18 years
    d) 21 years

Community Medicine

  1. What is the incubation period of measles?
    a) 2-4 days
    b) 7-14 days
    c) 21-28 days
    d) 30-40 days
  2. Herd immunity provides protection to which group?
    a) Vaccinated individuals
    b) Unvaccinated individuals
    c) All individuals
    d) Only immune-compromised individuals

Anatomy

  1. Which artery is the main supplier of blood to the brain?
    a) Carotid artery
    b) Femoral artery
    c) Radial artery
    d) Ulnar artery
  2. The brachial plexus originates from which spinal nerves?
    a) C3-C7
    b) C5-T1
    c) L1-L5
    d) T1-T5
  3. The sciatic nerve is a branch of which plexus?
    a) Cervical
    b) Brachial
    c) Lumbar
    d) Sacral
  4. The sphenoid bone is located in which part of the body?
    a) Skull
    b) Pelvis
    c) Thorax
    d) Vertebral column
  5. The functional unit of the kidney is called:
    a) Nephron
    b) Alveolus
    c) Hepatocyte
    d) Osteon

Physiology

  1. What is the normal resting cardiac output in an adult?
    a) 3 L/min
    b) 5 L/min
    c) 8 L/min
    d) 10 L/min
  2. Which hormone regulates water balance in the body?
    a) Insulin
    b) ADH
    c) Aldosterone
    d) Cortisol
  3. The primary pacemaker of the heart is:
    a) AV node
    b) SA node
    c) Bundle of His
    d) Purkinje fibers
  4. The Bohr effect describes the influence of:
    a) pH on oxygen binding to hemoglobin
    b) Carbon dioxide on hemoglobin structure
    c) Oxygen affinity of myoglobin
    d) Blood pressure regulation
  5. Which part of the nephron is responsible for filtration?
    a) Proximal tubule
    b) Loop of Henle
    c) Glomerulus
    d) Collecting duct

Pharmacology

  1. Which drug class is used as first-line treatment for hypertension?
    a) Beta-blockers
    b) ACE inhibitors
    c) Calcium channel blockers
    d) Diuretics
  2. Which of the following drugs is a beta-blocker?
    a) Losartan
    b) Metoprolol
    c) Amlodipine
    d) Digoxin
  3. Warfarin acts by inhibiting which vitamin-dependent clotting factors?
    a) I, II, V, VIII
    b) II, VII, IX, X
    c) XI, XII, XIII
    d) III, IV, VII, X
  4. Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?
    a) Tetracycline
    b) Penicillin
    c) Erythromycin
    d) Ciprofloxacin

Biochemistry

  1. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
    a) Glycine
    b) Lysine
    c) Proline
    d) Tyrosine
  2. The end product of purine metabolism in humans is:
    a) Urea
    b) Uric acid
    c) Creatinine
    d) Ammonia
  3. Which vitamin is required for collagen synthesis?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin B12
    c) Vitamin C
    d) Vitamin D
  4. What is the primary storage form of glucose in the liver?
    a) Glycogen
    b) Starch
    c) Cellulose
    d) Glucose-6-phosphate

Pathology

  1. Which type of necrosis is commonly seen in tuberculosis?
    a) Liquefactive
    b) Coagulative
    c) Caseous
    d) Fat
  2. A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) most likely has which chromosomal abnormality?
    a) Philadelphia chromosome
    b) Trisomy 21
    c) Turner syndrome
    d) Patau syndrome

Anatomy (5 Questions)

  1. Which artery is the main supplier of blood to the brain?
    a) Carotid artery
    b) Femoral artery
    c) Radial artery
    d) Ulnar artery
  2. The brachial plexus originates from which spinal nerves?
    a) C3-C7
    b) C5-T1
    c) L1-L5
    d) T1-T5
  3. The sciatic nerve is a branch of which plexus?
    a) Cervical
    b) Brachial
    c) Lumbar
    d) Sacral
  4. The sphenoid bone is located in which part of the body?
    a) Skull
    b) Pelvis
    c) Thorax
    d) Vertebral column
  5. The functional unit of the kidney is called:
    a) Nephron
    b) Alveolus
    c) Hepatocyte
    d) Osteon

Physiology

  1. What is the normal resting cardiac output in an adult?
    a) 3 L/min
    b) 5 L/min
    c) 8 L/min
    d) 10 L/min
  2. Which hormone regulates water balance in the body?
    a) Insulin
    b) ADH
    c) Aldosterone
    d) Cortisol
  3. The primary pacemaker of the heart is:
    a) AV node
    b) SA node
    c) Bundle of His
    d) Purkinje fibers
  4. The Bohr effect describes the influence of:
    a) pH on oxygen binding to hemoglobin
    b) Carbon dioxide on hemoglobin structure
    c) Oxygen affinity of myoglobin
    d) Blood pressure regulation
  5. Which part of the nephron is responsible for filtration?
    a) Proximal tubule
    b) Loop of Henle
    c) Glomerulus
    d) Collecting duct

Pharmacology

  1. Which drug class is used as first-line treatment for hypertension?
    a) Beta-blockers
    b) ACE inhibitors
    c) Calcium channel blockers
    d) Diuretics
  2. Which of the following drugs is a beta-blocker?
    a) Losartan
    b) Metoprolol
    c) Amlodipine
    d) Digoxin
  3. Warfarin acts by inhibiting which vitamin-dependent clotting factors?
    a) I, II, V, VIII
    b) II, VII, IX, X
    c) XI, XII, XIII
    d) III, IV, VII, X
  4. Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?
    a) Tetracycline
    b) Penicillin
    c) Erythromycin
    d) Ciprofloxacin

Biochemistry

  1. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
    a) Glycine
    b) Lysine
    c) Proline
    d) Tyrosine
  2. The end product of purine metabolism in humans is:
    a) Urea
    b) Uric acid
    c) Creatinine
    d) Ammonia
  3. Which vitamin is required for collagen synthesis?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin B12
    c) Vitamin C
    d) Vitamin D
  4. What is the primary storage form of glucose in the liver?
    a) Glycogen
    b) Starch
    c) Cellulose
    d) Glucose-6-phosphate

Pathology

  1. Which type of necrosis is commonly seen in tuberculosis?
    a) Liquefactive
    b) Coagulative
    c) Caseous
    d) Fat
  2. A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) most likely has which chromosomal abnormality?
    a) Philadelphia chromosome
    b) Trisomy 21
    c) Turner syndrome
    d) Patau syndrome

Pathology

  1. Which type of necrosis is commonly seen in tuberculosis?
    a) Liquefactive
    b) Coagulative
    c) Caseous
    d) Fat
  2. A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) most likely has which chromosomal abnormality?
    a) Philadelphia chromosome
    b) Trisomy 21
    c) Turner syndrome
    d) Patau syndrome
  3. Which of the following is a hallmark of irreversible cell injury?
    a) Cellular swelling
    b) Mitochondrial damage
    c) Ribosomal detachment
    d) Membrane blebbing
  4. A 45-year-old smoker presents with a persistent cough and hemoptysis. A biopsy of the lung shows keratin pearls and intercellular bridges. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a) Small cell carcinoma
    b) Adenocarcinoma
    c) Squamous cell carcinoma
    d) Large cell carcinoma
  5. Which of the following tumors is associated with the RB gene mutation?
    a) Wilms tumor
    b) Retinoblastoma
    c) Neuroblastoma
    d) Osteosarcoma
  6. Which inflammatory cells predominate in chronic inflammation?
    a) Neutrophils
    b) Macrophages
    c) Eosinophils
    d) Mast cells
  7. Which of the following is a common finding in amyloidosis?
    a) Apple-green birefringence under polarized light
    b) Caseous necrosis
    c) Mallory bodies
    d) Reed-Sternberg cells

Microbiology

  1. Which of the following bacteria is an obligate intracellular pathogen?
    a) Escherichia coli
    b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    c) Chlamydia trachomatis
    d) Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive bacteria are characteristic of:
    a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    b) Staphylococcus aureus
    c) Streptococcus pyogenes
    d) Enterococcus faecalis
  3. Which of the following is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis worldwide?
    a) Rotavirus
    b) Norovirus
    c) Adenovirus
    d) Astrovirus
  4. A Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to detect which microorganism?
    a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    b) Clostridium difficile
    c) Neisseria meningitidis
    d) Salmonella typhi

Forensic Medicine

  1. Which of the following is an example of an antemortem sign of hanging?
    a) Fracture of the hyoid bone
    b) Dribbling of saliva
    c) Tardieu’s spots
    d) Postmortem lividity
  2. Which of the following is a sign of drowning?
    a) Pugilistic attitude
    b) Cutis anserina (goosebumps)
    c) Cherry-red discoloration of the skin
    d) Rigor mortis
  3. In forensic medicine, the term “Pugilistic attitude” is commonly seen in:
    a) Hanging
    b) Drowning
    c) Fire-related deaths
    d) Cyanide poisoning
  4. The best method for determining the age of a person between 14 and 21 years is:
    a) X-ray of the skull
    b) X-ray of the wrist and elbow
    c) Dental examination
    d) Anthropometry
  5. Which of the following poisons leads to bright red-colored postmortem blood?
    a) Arsenic
    b) Cyanide
    c) Carbon monoxide
    d) Lead
  6. Which is the first organ to putrefy in a dead body?
    a) Brain
    b) Liver
    c) Heart
    d) Lungs

Community Medicine

  1. Which of the following is the most commonly used measure of disease frequency in epidemiology?
    a) Incidence rate
    b) Case fatality rate
    c) Prevalence
    d) Relative risk
  2. The best method for assessing the nutritional status of a community is:
    a) Body Mass Index (BMI)
    b) Mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC)
    c) Dietary recall
    d) Growth monitoring
  3. The term “herd immunity” refers to:
    a) Immunity in animals
    b) Protection of unvaccinated individuals in a population
    c) Immunity achieved through natural infection
    d) Resistance to all infections
  4. The SAFE strategy is used for the control of:
    a) Tuberculosis
    b) Malaria
    c) Trachoma
    d) Dengue fever
  5. The primary goal of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) program is to:
    a) Reduce hospital admissions
    b) Reduce under-five mortality
    c) Improve vaccination coverage
    d) Treat all children with antibiotics
  6. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?
    a) Pap smear screening for cervical cancer
    b) Immunization
    c) Rehabilitation of stroke patients
    d) Chemotherapy for cancer
  7. The recommended salt intake to prevent hypertension, as per WHO guidelines, is:
    a) Less than 2 grams per day
    b) Less than 5 grams per day
    c) Less than 10 grams per day
    d) Less than 15 grams per day
  8. The denominator in calculating the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is:
    a) Total number of births in a year
    b) Total number of live births in a year
    c) Total number of stillbirths in a year
    d) Total number of infants admitted to the hospital
  9. Which of the following is an essential component of primary health care?
    a) Specialized tertiary care services
    b) Provision of MRI and CT scan facilities
    c) Equitable distribution of health services
    d) Advanced cardiac interventions
  10. The color code for a “sharp waste container” in biomedical waste management is:
    a) Red
    b) Yellow
    c) Blue
    d) White

Medicine

  1. A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with sudden-onset unilateral weakness of the right arm and leg. The most likely cause is:
    a) Myasthenia gravis
    b) Stroke
    c) Guillain-Barré syndrome
    d) Multiple sclerosis
  2. Which of the following is the most common cause of chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
    a) Diabetes mellitus
    b) Hypertension
    c) Polycystic kidney disease
    d) Glomerulonephritis
  3. Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly associated with Addison’s disease?
    a) Hypernatremia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hyperkalemia
    d) Hypocalcemia
  4. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is:
    a) Staphylococcus aureus
    b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
    d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  5. Which sign is most suggestive of pericardial tamponade?
    a) Beck’s triad
    b) Battle’s sign
    c) Trousseau’s sign
    d) Grey Turner’s sign
  6. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pallor, and glossitis. Laboratory investigations show a low hemoglobin level and an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV). The most likely diagnosis is:
    a) Iron deficiency anemia
    b) Vitamin B12 deficiency
    c) Thalassemia
    d) Anemia of chronic disease
  7. Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
    a) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
    b) Toxic multinodular goiter
    c) Graves’ disease
    d) Iodine deficiency
  8. A patient with a long history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely responsible?
    a) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
    b) Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
    c) Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
    d) Vitamin D
  9. Which of the following is a key feature of nephrotic syndrome?
    a) Hematuria
    b) Hypertension
    c) Proteinuria >3.5 g/day
    d) Oliguria
  10. A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a fasting blood glucose of 300 mg/dL. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a) Diabetes insipidus
    b) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
    c) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
    d) Cushing’s syndrome
  11. Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with causing drug-induced lupus?
    a) Methotrexate
    b) Hydralazine
    c) Ibuprofen
    d) Aspirin
  12. Which heart sound is characteristically heard in mitral stenosis?
    a) Opening snap
    b) S3 gallop
    c) Ejection click
    d) Wide splitting of S2
  13. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for status epilepticus?
    a) Phenytoin
    b) Diazepam
    c) Carbamazepine
    d) Valproic acid

Nepal Medical Council Licensing Examination Model Set 2025

Below is a set of 130 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) organized by subject, following the distribution indicated in your table. These are designed for practice in the style of the NMCLE (Nepal Medical Council Licensing Examination). Each question has one best answer.


Anatomy (5 Questions)

  1. The femoral nerve primarily innervates which of the following muscle groups?
    A. Medial thigh muscles
    B. Anterior thigh muscles
    C. Posterior thigh muscles
    D. Lateral thigh muscles
    E. Gluteal muscles
  2. The epiploic foramen (of Winslow) connects which two spaces?
    A. Lesser sac and greater sac
    B. Greater sac and rectouterine pouch
    C. Omental bursa and subhepatic space
    D. Subphrenic space and lesser sac
    E. Paracolic gutter and lesser sac
  3. Which of the following structures passes through the carpal tunnel?
    A. Flexor carpi ulnaris tendon
    B. Palmaris longus tendon
    C. Median nerve
    D. Ulnar nerve
    E. Radial artery
  4. In males, the inguinal canal transmits the:
    A. Round ligament of the uterus
    B. Femoral artery
    C. Testicular artery and vein
    D. Inferior epigastric artery
    E. Pudendal nerve
  5. The boundary between the body and root of the tongue is marked by the:
    A. Filiform papillae
    B. Fungiform papillae
    C. Circumvallate papillae
    D. Terminal sulcus
    E. Lingual frenulum

Physiology (5 Questions)

  1. In a normal ECG, the P wave represents:
    A. Atrial depolarization
    B. Ventricular depolarization
    C. Atrial repolarization
    D. Ventricular repolarization
    E. SA node discharge
  2. Under normal resting conditions, the primary regulator of respiration is:
    A. Arterial PO₂
    B. Arterial PCO₂
    C. Arterial pH due to metabolic acids
    D. Blood pressure
    E. Body temperature
  3. Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
    A. Aldosterone
    B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
    C. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
    D. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
    E. Cortisol
  4. The absolute refractory period in a nerve action potential is due to:
    A. Closure of potassium channels
    B. Inactivation of sodium channels
    C. Activation of chloride channels
    D. Hyperpolarization of the membrane
    E. Increased sodium permeability
  5. Which of the following statements about cardiac output is true?
    A. Cardiac output is independent of heart rate
    B. Cardiac output = Stroke Volume × Heart Rate
    C. Cardiac output is always constant
    D. Cardiac output decreases with exercise
    E. Cardiac output is highest when standing upright

Pharmacology (4 Questions)

  1. Which of the following drugs is a non-selective beta-blocker?
    A. Metoprolol
    B. Atenolol
    C. Propranolol
    D. Bisoprolol
    E. Nebivolol
  2. The antidote for opioid overdose is:
    A. Flumazenil
    B. Naloxone
    C. N-acetylcysteine
    D. Atropine
    E. Pralidoxime
  3. Which antibiotic is classified as a glycopeptide?
    A. Vancomycin
    B. Gentamicin
    C. Ciprofloxacin
    D. Azithromycin
    E. Ceftriaxone
  4. Which class of antibiotics is commonly associated with ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?
    A. Penicillins
    B. Aminoglycosides
    C. Macrolides
    D. Tetracyclines
    E. Fluoroquinolones

Biochemistry (7 Questions)

  1. The end product of purine metabolism in humans is:
    A. Urea
    B. Uric acid
    C. Ammonia
    D. Creatinine
    E. Xanthine
  2. Which enzyme is deficient in Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
    A. Tyrosinase
    B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
    C. Homogentisic acid oxidase
    D. Dihydropteridine reductase
    E. Tyrosine aminotransferase
  3. In glycolysis, the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is:
    A. Hexokinase
    B. Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
    C. Aldolase
    D. Enolase
    E. Pyruvate kinase
  4. Which lipoprotein is considered “good” cholesterol because it helps remove excess cholesterol from tissues?
    A. Chylomicrons
    B. VLDL
    C. LDL
    D. HDL
    E. IDL
  5. The rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis is:
    A. HMG-CoA reductase
    B. HMG-CoA lyase
    C. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
    D. Mevalonate kinase
    E. Squalene synthase
  6. Vitamin K is required for the gamma-carboxylation of which clotting factors?
    A. Factors I, II, V, X
    B. Factors II, VII, IX, X
    C. Factors VIII, IX, X, XI
    D. Factors IX, X, XI, XII
    E. Factors II, V, VII, IX
  7. A deficiency of which vitamin leads to scurvy?
    A. Vitamin A
    B. Vitamin B₁ (Thiamine)
    C. Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
    D. Vitamin D
    E. Vitamin K

Pathology (7 Questions)

  1. “Nutmeg liver” is typically associated with:
    A. Alcoholic cirrhosis
    B. Congestive heart failure
    C. Viral hepatitis
    D. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
    E. Hemochromatosis
  2. Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene?
    A. HER2
    B. RAS
    C. p53
    D. BCR-ABL
    E. RET
  3. Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of:
    A. Hodgkin lymphoma
    B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
    C. Multiple myeloma
    D. Leukemoid reaction
    E. Infectious mononucleosis
  4. Which hypersensitivity reaction is primarily mediated by IgE antibodies?
    A. Type I
    B. Type II
    C. Type III
    D. Type IV
    E. Type V
  5. Which of the following best describes apoptosis?
    A. Pathologic cell death with inflammatory response
    B. Pathologic cell death without inflammatory response
    C. Programmed cell death without inflammatory response
    D. Uncontrolled cell proliferation
    E. Necrosis with neutrophilic infiltration
  6. In granulomatous inflammation, which cell type is most characteristic?
    A. Neutrophils
    B. Eosinophils
    C. Lymphocytes
    D. Epithelioid histiocytes (macrophages)
    E. Plasma cells
  7. Auer rods are commonly seen in:
    A. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
    B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
    C. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
    D. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
    E. Hodgkin lymphoma

Microbiology (4 Questions)

  1. The most common cause of urinary tract infections is:
    A. Staphylococcus aureus
    B. Escherichia coli
    C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    E. Proteus mirabilis
  2. A Gram-positive bacterium that forms spores and causes pseudomembranous colitis is:
    A. Clostridium botulinum
    B. Clostridium difficile
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium tetani
    E. Bacillus cereus
  3. The Mantoux test (PPD test) is used for the diagnosis of:
    A. Typhoid fever
    B. Tuberculosis
    C. Syphilis
    D. Diphtheria
    E. Gonorrhea
  4. Negri bodies are associated with which viral infection?
    A. Rabies
    B. Poliovirus
    C. Influenza
    D. Herpes simplex
    E. HIV

Forensic Medicine (5 Questions)

  1. The most common pattern of fingerprint is:
    A. Arch
    B. Whorl
    C. Loop
    D. Composite
    E. Accidental
  2. “Hanging” typically refers to death caused by:
    A. Strangulation by ligature with the body lying flat
    B. Throttling by hand
    C. Constriction of the neck by a ligature with the body suspended
    D. Suffocation by pillow
    E. Drowning in water
  3. The “Pugilistic attitude” in a burned body is due to:
    A. Postmortem artifact caused by heat-induced muscle contraction
    B. Rigor mortis
    C. Decomposition
    D. Defensive posture during burning
    E. Heat stroke
  4. The greenish discoloration of a bruise is primarily due to:
    A. Bilirubin
    B. Biliverdin
    C. Hematin
    D. Hemosiderin
    E. Urobilin
  5. “Marbling” in a decomposing body refers to:
    A. Marbled appearance on bones
    B. Discoloration of nails
    C. Greenish discoloration of the abdomen
    D. Vein pattern on the skin due to hemolysis
    E. Swelling of the face and neck

Community Medicine (10 Questions)

  1. The best indicator of the overall health status of a community is often considered to be:
    A. Infant mortality rate
    B. Maternal mortality rate
    C. Crude death rate
    D. Life expectancy
    E. Per capita income
  2. Which study design is best for investigating rare diseases?
    A. Case-control study
    B. Cohort study
    C. Cross-sectional study
    D. Randomized controlled trial
    E. Ecological study
  3. The concept of “herd immunity” is most relevant to:
    A. Non-communicable diseases
    B. Vaccine-preventable communicable diseases
    C. Genetic disorders
    D. Occupational diseases
    E. Nutritional deficiencies
  4. In epidemiology, “incidence” refers to:
    A. Total number of existing cases of a disease
    B. Number of new cases in a given time period
    C. Mortality rate from a disease
    D. Ratio of sick to well individuals
    E. Prevalence in a specific population
  5. The most sensitive indicator of recent malaria transmission in a community is:
    A. Spleen rate
    B. Parasite rate
    C. Infant parasite rate
    D. Annual Parasite Incidence (API)
    E. Slide positivity rate
  6. “DALY” stands for:
    A. Disease Adjusted Life Year
    B. Disability Affected Life Year
    C. Disability-Adjusted Life Year
    D. Disease-Associated Life Year
    E. Disturbed Activity Life Year
  7. Which of the following is NOT part of the “three delays” model in maternal health?
    A. Delay in deciding to seek care
    B. Delay in reaching a health facility
    C. Delay in receiving adequate care at the facility
    D. Delay in obtaining family planning services
    E. All of the above are part of the model
  8. The best method to assess the severity of acute malnutrition in a community is:
    A. Weight for height (wasting)
    B. Height for age (stunting)
    C. Weight for age (underweight)
    D. Mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC)
    E. Body mass index (BMI)
  9. Primary prevention of disease includes:
    A. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment
    B. Limitation of disability
    C. Rehabilitation
    D. Health promotion and specific protection
    E. Hospice care
  10. A measure of dispersion that is the square root of the variance is the:
    A. Mean
    B. Mode
    C. Median
    D. Standard deviation
    E. Range

Medicine (13 Questions)

  1. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is:
    A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    B. Staphylococcus aureus
    C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    D. Legionella pneumophila
    E. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  2. A 55-year-old chronic alcoholic presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Korsakoff psychosis
    B. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
    C. Hepatic encephalopathy
    D. Central pontine myelinolysis
    E. Subdural hematoma
  3. The drug of choice for an acute migraine attack is:
    A. Propranolol
    B. Amitriptyline
    C. Sumatriptan
    D. Topiramate
    E. Verapamil
  4. A key finding in diabetes insipidus is:
    A. Low serum sodium
    B. Low serum osmolality
    C. High urine osmolality
    D. High serum osmolality
    E. Hypoglycemia
  5. In rheumatoid arthritis, the most specific antibody is:
    A. Rheumatoid factor
    B. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP)
    C. Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
    D. Anti-double-stranded DNA
    E. Anti-smooth muscle antibody
  6. The triad of hemolytic anemia, jaundice, and splenomegaly is commonly seen in:
    A. Hereditary spherocytosis
    B. Thalassemia
    C. G6PD deficiency
    D. Sickle cell anemia
    E. Autoimmune hemolysis
  7. A patient with Addison’s disease is likely to have:
    A. Hypertension and hypokalemia
    B. Hypotension and hyperkalemia
    C. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia
    D. Low ACTH levels
    E. Hyperglycemia
  8. The most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is:
    A. Peptic ulcer disease
    B. Esophageal varices
    C. Mallory-Weiss tear
    D. Gastric cancer
    E. Gastritis
  9. A “butterfly rash” on the face is characteristic of:
    A. Rheumatoid arthritis
    B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    C. Psoriasis
    D. Dermatomyositis
    E. Pemphigus vulgaris
  10. A characteristic feature of Parkinson’s disease is:
    A. Hemiballismus
    B. Athetosis
    C. Intention tremor
    D. Resting tremor
    E. Chorea
  11. The most common type of shock in sepsis is:
    A. Hypovolemic shock
    B. Cardiogenic shock
    C. Obstructive shock
    D. Distributive shock
    E. Neurogenic shock
  12. In infective endocarditis, Janeway lesions are described as:
    A. Painful nodules on the fingertips
    B. Painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles
    C. Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers
    D. Tender nodules in the pulp of fingers
    E. Splinter hemorrhages under the nails
  13. The classic triad of meningitis includes:
    A. Fever, rash, photophobia
    B. Headache, seizures, vomiting
    C. Fever, headache, nuchal rigidity
    D. Altered sensorium, fever, bradycardia
    E. Vomiting, diarrhea, shock

Surgery (13 Questions)

  1. The most common cause of an acute abdomen requiring surgery is:
    A. Acute pancreatitis
    B. Perforated peptic ulcer
    C. Acute appendicitis
    D. Acute cholecystitis
    E. Intestinal obstruction
  2. During thyroid surgery, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is at greatest risk when ligating the:
    A. Superior thyroid artery
    B. Inferior thyroid artery
    C. External carotid artery
    D. Middle thyroid vein
    E. Thyroidea ima artery
  3. A patient presents with a painless breast lump. The most appropriate initial investigation is:
    A. Mammography
    B. Ultrasound of the breast
    C. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)
    D. Core needle biopsy
    E. MRI of the breast
  4. Which hernia has the highest risk of strangulation?
    A. Direct inguinal hernia
    B. Indirect inguinal hernia
    C. Femoral hernia
    D. Epigastric hernia
    E. Umbilical hernia
  5. The preferred incision for an open (traditional) appendectomy is the:
    A. Midline laparotomy
    B. Lanz incision
    C. Paramedian incision
    D. Kocher’s incision
    E. Pfannenstiel incision
  6. According to the Parkland formula for burn resuscitation, the fluid requirement in the first 24 hours is:
    A. 2 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA
    B. 4 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA
    C. 6 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA
    D. 8 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA
    E. 10 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA
  7. Which of the following is NOT typically a feature of intestinal obstruction?
    A. Colicky abdominal pain
    B. Absolute constipation
    C. Vomiting
    D. Abdominal distension
    E. Hematemesis
  8. The best diagnostic test for suspected choledocholithiasis (CBD stone) is:
    A. Ultrasound of the abdomen
    B. CT scan of the abdomen
    C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
    D. MRCP (Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography)
    E. HIDA scan
  9. In trauma care, the “FAST” scan stands for:
    A. Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma
    B. Focused Assessment with Scanning Technique
    C. Focused Analysis with Sonographic Test
    D. Fast Abdominal Sonography in Trauma
    E. Full Abdominal Sonography for Trauma
  10. The most common benign tumor of the liver is:
    A. Hepatic adenoma
    B. Focal nodular hyperplasia
    C. Hemangioma
    D. Cholangioma
    E. Hepatocellular carcinoma
  11. In the evaluation of varicose veins, the Trendelenburg test assesses:
    A. Competency of perforators
    B. Competency of the saphenofemoral junction
    C. Deep vein patency
    D. Direction of venous blood flow
    E. Lymphatic drainage
  12. Courvoisier’s sign (palpable non-tender gallbladder) is classically associated with:
    A. Gallbladder carcinoma
    B. Pancreatic head carcinoma
    C. Choledocholithiasis
    D. Cholangiocarcinoma
    E. Acute cholecystitis
  13. Perforation of a duodenal ulcer typically presents with:
    A. Left iliac fossa pain
    B. Right iliac fossa pain
    C. Sudden onset of severe epigastric pain
    D. Gradual onset of periumbilical pain
    E. Chronic back pain

Gynecology & Obstetrics (12 Questions)

  1. Which hormone is detected by standard home pregnancy tests?
    A. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
    B. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
    C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
    D. Estrogen
    E. Progesterone
  2. The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is:
    A. Retained placental fragments
    B. Uterine atony
    C. Uterine inversion
    D. Genital tract lacerations
    E. Coagulopathy
  3. A Pap smear is primarily used to detect:
    A. Endometrial cancer
    B. Ovarian cancer
    C. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
    D. Vaginal infections
    E. Breast cancer
  4. The normal duration of the puerperium is approximately:
    A. 1 week
    B. 2 weeks
    C. 4 weeks
    D. 6 weeks
    E. 8 weeks
  5. The drug of choice for controlling eclamptic seizures is:
    A. Diazepam
    B. Phenytoin
    C. Magnesium sulfate
    D. Hydralazine
    E. Labetalol
  6. Which pelvic shape is most commonly associated with obstructed labor?
    A. Gynecoid
    B. Android
    C. Anthropoid
    D. Platypelloid
    E. Mixed
  7. Clomiphene citrate helps in fertility by:
    A. Suppressing FSH release
    B. Stimulating LH surge directly
    C. Blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus
    D. Increasing prolactin secretion
    E. Acting as an estrogen agonist in the ovary
  8. A 28-year-old pregnant woman at 12 weeks presents with severe vomiting, weight loss, and dehydration. The most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
    B. Acute gastritis
    C. Cholecystitis
    D. Pancreatitis
    E. Preeclampsia
  9. Which of the following is a tocolytic agent?
    A. Oxytocin
    B. Ergometrine
    C. Terbutaline
    D. Misoprostol
    E. Dinoprostone
  10. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is the:
    A. Ampulla of the fallopian tube
    B. Isthmus of the fallopian tube
    C. Fimbrial end of the tube
    D. Ovary
    E. Cervix
  11. A 25-year-old woman has a painless ulcer on the vulva. The most likely cause is:
    A. Herpes genitalis
    B. Chancroid
    C. Syphilis
    D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
    E. Granuloma inguinale
  12. The Bishop score is used to assess:
    A. Risk of eclampsia
    B. Fetal lung maturity
    C. Cervical favorability for induction of labor
    D. Pelvic adequacy
    E. Fetal distress

Pediatrics (10 Questions)

  1. The most common cause of pneumonia in neonates is:
    A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    B. Staphylococcus aureus
    C. Group B Streptococci
    D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    E. Chlamydia pneumoniae
  2. A child with “whooping cough” is most likely infected with:
    A. Haemophilus influenzae
    B. Bordetella pertussis
    C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
    E. Streptococcus pyogenes
  3. The first tooth to erupt in most children is the:
    A. Upper central incisor
    B. Lower central incisor
    C. Upper lateral incisor
    D. Lower lateral incisor
    E. First molar
  4. Koplik spots are pathognomonic for:
    A. Measles
    B. Rubella
    C. Chickenpox
    D. Scarlet fever
    E. Mumps
  5. In pediatric practice, the APGAR score is routinely assessed at:
    A. 1 and 5 minutes after birth
    B. 5 and 10 minutes after birth
    C. 10 and 15 minutes after birth
    D. 15 and 20 minutes after birth
    E. 1, 5, and 10 minutes after birth
  6. The recommended dose of Vitamin A for a child with measles (6–11 months) is:
    A. 50,000 IU
    B. 100,000 IU
    C. 150,000 IU
    D. 200,000 IU
    E. 250,000 IU
  7. A neonate with excessive drooling and choking on feeds may have:
    A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
    B. Tracheoesophageal fistula
    C. Pyloric stenosis
    D. Duodenal atresia
    E. Hirschsprung’s disease
  8. The most common cause of acute gastroenteritis in children worldwide is:
    A. Rotavirus
    B. Norovirus
    C. Adenovirus
    D. Astrovirus
    E. Escherichia coli
  9. A “boot-shaped” heart on chest X-ray is characteristic of:
    A. Atrial septal defect
    B. Ventricular septal defect
    C. Tetralogy of Fallot
    D. Patent ductus arteriosus
    E. Coarctation of the aorta
  10. The most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis is:
    A. Escherichia coli
    B. Listeria monocytogenes
    C. Group B Streptococcus
    D. Staphylococcus aureus
    E. Klebsiella pneumoniae

Anesthesia (8 Questions)

  1. Malignant hyperthermia is most commonly triggered by:
    A. Propofol
    B. Thiopental
    C. Halothane
    D. Ketamine
    E. Nitrous oxide
  2. The definitive treatment for malignant hyperthermia is:
    A. Dantrolene sodium
    B. Succinylcholine
    C. Atropine
    D. Bromocriptine
    E. Naloxone
  3. Which of the following is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
    A. Vecuronium
    B. Rocuronium
    C. Atracurium
    D. Succinylcholine
    E. Pancuronium
  4. Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalational anesthetic is defined as:
    A. The alveolar concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients
    B. The alveolar concentration causing apnea in 50% of patients
    C. The alveolar concentration producing sedation in 100% of patients
    D. The alveolar concentration ensuring analgesia in 50% of patients
    E. The alveolar concentration lethal to 50% of patients
  5. The color code for a nitrous oxide cylinder is:
    A. Black body, white shoulder
    B. Blue body
    C. Grey body
    D. Green body
    E. Brown body
  6. An absolute contraindication for spinal anesthesia is:
    A. Hypotension
    B. Severe hypovolemia
    C. Anxiety
    D. Local skin infection at the puncture site
    E. Mild coagulopathy
  7. Which intravenous anesthetic agent has antiemetic properties?
    A. Ketamine
    B. Thiopental
    C. Propofol
    D. Etomidate
    E. Midazolam
  8. The recommended patient position for spinal anesthesia is:
    A. Prone position
    B. Supine position
    C. Lateral decubitus position with knees flexed
    D. Lithotomy position
    E. Trendelenburg position

Orthopedics (6 Questions)

  1. The most common site of fracture in osteoporosis is:
    A. Femoral shaft
    B. Surgical neck of humerus
    C. Distal radius (Colles’ fracture)
    D. Vertebral compression fractures
    E. Tibial shaft
  2. A 65-year-old with knee pain, crepitus, and joint space narrowing on X-ray likely has:
    A. Rheumatoid arthritis
    B. Osteoarthritis
    C. Gout
    D. Septic arthritis
    E. Osteomyelitis
  3. A child presents with a painless limp and limited abduction of the hip. The most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)
    B. Perthes disease
    C. Septic arthritis
    D. Transient synovitis
    E. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
  4. “Tennis elbow” is also known as:
    A. Lateral epicondylitis
    B. Medial epicondylitis
    C. Olecranon bursitis
    D. Radial tunnel syndrome
    E. Ulnar collateral ligament injury
  5. A fracture with multiple fragments is referred to as a:
    A. Greenstick fracture
    B. Comminuted fracture
    C. Spiral fracture
    D. Transverse fracture
    E. Compression fracture
  6. The definitive investigation for a meniscal injury of the knee is:
    A. X-ray of the knee
    B. MRI of the knee
    C. Arthrography
    D. Ultrasound
    E. CT scan

Ophthalmology (5 Questions)

  1. The most common cause of blindness worldwide is:
    A. Cataract
    B. Glaucoma
    C. Macular degeneration
    D. Diabetic retinopathy
    E. Trachoma
  2. Absence of the red reflex on examination may indicate:
    A. Conjunctivitis
    B. Retinoblastoma
    C. Glaucoma
    D. Uveitis
    E. Myopia
  3. In primary open-angle glaucoma, the intraocular pressure is typically:
    A. Low or normal
    B. Elevated
    C. Fluctuating between high and low
    D. Always extremely high
    E. Unaffected
  4. A 70-year-old with progressive loss of central vision most likely has:
    A. Glaucoma
    B. Diabetic retinopathy
    C. Age-related macular degeneration
    D. Retinitis pigmentosa
    E. Retinal detachment
  5. The classic triad of congenital glaucoma includes:
    A. Tearing, photophobia, blepharospasm
    B. Proptosis, chemosis, diplopia
    C. Redness, discharge, itching
    D. Eye pain, headache, vomiting
    E. Floaters, flashing lights, vision loss

ENT (6 Questions)

  1. The most common cause of acute otitis media in children is:
    A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    B. Staphylococcus aureus
    C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    D. Proteus mirabilis
    E. Escherichia coli
  2. A 30-year-old with unilateral nasal obstruction and recurrent epistaxis likely has:
    A. Nasal polyp
    B. Deviated nasal septum
    C. Inverted papilloma
    D. Allergic rhinitis
    E. Rhinoscleroma
  3. The Rinne test compares:
    A. Air conduction (AC) to bone conduction (BC) in the same ear
    B. Bone conduction in both ears
    C. Air conduction in both ears
    D. Air conduction to sensorineural conduction
    E. Bone conduction to sensorineural conduction
  4. The voice quality in bilateral vocal cord paralysis is typically:
    A. Aphonic
    B. Normal
    C. Strained and weak
    D. Deep and resonant
    E. Loud and high-pitched
  5. The organism most commonly responsible for malignant otitis externa is:
    A. Staphylococcus aureus
    B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    C. Streptococcus pyogenes
    D. Escherichia coli
    E. Proteus vulgaris
  6. The investigation of choice for suspected cholesteatoma is:
    A. Pure tone audiometry
    B. CT scan of the temporal bone
    C. MRI of the brain
    D. Tympanometry
    E. Ultrasound of the mastoid

Dermatology (3 Questions)

  1. A 10-year-old child with honey-colored crusted lesions around the mouth most likely has:
    A. Impetigo
    B. Erysipelas
    C. Psoriasis
    D. Tinea corporis
    E. Contact dermatitis
  2. The Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding on scale removal) is associated with:
    A. Lichen planus
    B. Psoriasis
    C. Pemphigus vulgaris
    D. Eczema
    E. Scabies
  3. The drug of choice for scabies is:
    A. Permethrin cream
    B. Benzoyl peroxide
    C. Acyclovir ointment
    D. Hydrocortisone cream
    E. Salicylic acid

Dentistry (2 Questions)

  1. The most common cause of tooth loss in adults is:
    A. Dental caries
    B. Gingivitis
    C. Periodontitis
    D. Trauma
    E. Malocclusion
  2. Dental fluorosis is caused by:
    A. Excess fluoride ingestion during tooth development
    B. Vitamin D deficiency
    C. Excess calcium intake
    D. Poor oral hygiene
    E. High sugar diet

Psychiatry (2 Questions)

  1. A false, fixed belief not in keeping with the patient’s cultural background is known as a:
    A. Hallucination
    B. Delusion
    C. Illusion
    D. Overvalued idea
    E. Confabulation
  2. Lithium therapy requires regular monitoring of:
    A. Blood glucose levels
    B. Thyroid function and serum lithium levels
    C. Liver function tests
    D. Platelet count
    E. Coagulation profile

Additional 3 Questions (to reach 130 total)

Because the table’s row-by-row sum reaches 127, here are 3 extra Medicine questions to make a complete set of 130:

  1. The presence of Bence Jones protein in the urine is most commonly associated with:
    A. Hodgkin lymphoma
    B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
    C. Multiple myeloma
    D. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia
    E. Amyloidosis
  2. In acute rheumatic fever, the most commonly affected heart valve is the:
    A. Aortic valve
    B. Mitral valve
    C. Tricuspid valve
    D. Pulmonary valve
    E. All valves equally
  3. A “water hammer” (collapsing) pulse is characteristic of:
    A. Aortic stenosis
    B. Aortic regurgitation
    C. Mitral stenosis
    D. Mitral regurgitation
    E. Tricuspid regurgitation

Usage Notes

  • These MCQs are for practice and review; they are not an official exam paper.
  • Each question is single-best-answer format.
  • For actual NMCLE preparation, consult official guidelines and past papers as well.

Good luck with your studies!

Arunachal Pradesh Nursing Council Model MCQs for 2025

Table of Contents

Here is a set of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) relevant to the Arunachal Pradesh Nursing Council, with answers provided at the end.

Questions


1. What is the most appropriate action when a nurse notices a patient’s wound has a significant amount of drainage?
a) Apply a fresh dressing
b) Continue monitoring without intervention
c) Notify the healthcare provider for further assessment
d) Change the patient’s position


2. Which of the following is the most common symptom of hypoxia?
a) Hypertension
b) Cyanosis
c) Tachycardia
d) Hyperventilation


3. In the event of a cardiac arrest, what is the first intervention the nurse should initiate?
a) Administer epinephrine
b) Start chest compressions
c) Establish an airway
d) Administer oxygen


4. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
a) 10-12 breaths per minute
b) 12-16 breaths per minute
c) 18-22 breaths per minute
d) 20-24 breaths per minute


5. Which of the following nursing interventions is most important for a patient with a fever?
a) Increase fluid intake
b) Apply cold packs to the body
c) Keep the room temperature low
d) Administer antipyretics


6. What is the purpose of a Fowler’s position in a patient with respiratory distress?
a) Increase the workload on the heart
b) Promote drainage of secretions
c) Help relieve pain in the abdomen
d) Assist in reducing swelling


7. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) should avoid which of the following?
a) High-flow oxygen therapy
b) Deep breathing exercises
c) Use of incentive spirometer
d) Increasing physical activity


8. Which of the following is a priority for a nurse caring for a post-operative patient who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
a) Administer anticoagulant medications
b) Encourage bed rest to minimize stress
c) Apply anti-embolism stockings or compression devices
d) Increase the intake of potassium-rich foods


9. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with a history of seizures?
a) Place the patient in a supine position
b) Administer prescribed antiepileptic drugs
c) Provide emotional support
d) Ensure the patient’s safety by clearing the area of hazards


10. What is the primary goal of care for a patient with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
a) Increase the patient’s fluid intake
b) Control blood sugar levels within the normal range
c) Administer regular insulin doses
d) Promote exercise


11. What is the purpose of an intravenous (IV) drip rate?
a) To determine how much fluid a patient should drink
b) To measure how long a medication should be infused
c) To regulate the amount of fluid the patient receives per unit of time
d) To speed up the delivery of fluid to the bloodstream


12. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting?
a) Administer epinephrine
b) Apply a tourniquet above the site of the sting
c) Apply heat to the affected area
d) Instruct the patient to remain calm and monitor vitals


13. A nurse is teaching a patient with hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following is most important for the patient to understand?
a) Consuming foods high in salt will help lower blood pressure
b) Regular exercise and weight management can help control blood pressure
c) Drinking alcohol will increase blood pressure control
d) Increasing intake of caffeine will help manage hypertension


14. What is the normal range for an adult’s body temperature?
a) 96.8°F to 98.6°F
b) 97.0°F to 99.0°F
c) 98.0°F to 100.0°F
d) 98.6°F to 100.4°F


15. In which position should a nurse place a patient for an enema administration?
a) Prone
b) Supine
c) Left lateral Sims’ position
d) Right lateral Sims’ position


16. When caring for a newborn, what is the most important step in preventing infection?
a) Keep the baby’s room warm
b) Encourage the parents to perform hand hygiene before touching the baby
c) Bathe the baby with antiseptic solutions
d) Administer antibiotics regularly


17. Which of the following should a nurse monitor when a patient is receiving chemotherapy?
a) Liver function tests
b) Complete blood count (CBC)
c) Serum potassium levels
d) Blood glucose levels


18. What is the most common cause of postoperative fever within the first 48 hours after surgery?
a) Infection
b) Hypothermia
c) Inflammation
d) Dehydration


19. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
a) Encourage the patient to drink large amounts of fluids
b) Change the catheter every 24 hours
c) Keep the catheter drainage bag above the level of the bladder
d) Ensure the catheter is clamped every 2 hours


20. What is the appropriate way to assess a patient’s pulse rate?
a) Count the pulse for 10 seconds and multiply by 6
b) Count the pulse for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
c) Count the pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2
d) Count the pulse for a full minute without multiplying


Answer Key:

  1. c) Notify the healthcare provider for further assessment
  2. b) Cyanosis
  3. b) Start chest compressions
  4. b) 12-16 breaths per minute
  5. a) Increase fluid intake
  6. b) Promote drainage of secretions
  7. a) High-flow oxygen therapy
  8. c) Apply anti-embolism stockings or compression devices
  9. d) Ensure the patient’s safety by clearing the area of hazards
  10. b) Control blood sugar levels within the normal range
  11. c) To regulate the amount of fluid the patient receives per unit of time
  12. a) Administer epinephrine
  13. b) Regular exercise and weight management can help control blood pressure
  14. a) 96.8°F to 98.6°F
  15. c) Left lateral Sims’ position
  16. b) Encourage the parents to perform hand hygiene before touching the baby
  17. b) Complete blood count (CBC)
  18. c) Inflammation
  19. a) Encourage the patient to drink large amounts of fluids
  20. c) Count the pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2

Andhra Pradesh Nurses and Midwives Council exam Model MCQs 2025

Table of Contents

Here are 10 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with answers that could be relevant for the Andhra Pradesh Nurses and Midwives Council exam:


Questions

1. Which of the following is the first priority in the nursing care of a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?
a) Administer oxygen therapy
b) Administer pain relief
c) Encourage early ambulation
d) Perform chest physiotherapy
Answer: a) Administer oxygen therapy


2. What is the primary purpose of the nurse in the management of a patient undergoing general anesthesia?
a) Monitor vital signs and maintain airway
b) Assist with surgical procedures
c) Provide psychological support
d) Administer intravenous fluids
Answer: a) Monitor vital signs and maintain airway


3. What is the normal range for adult blood pressure?
a) 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg
b) 100/70 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg
c) 120/80 mmHg to 160/100 mmHg
d) 80/60 mmHg to 100/70 mmHg
Answer: a) 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg


4. Which of the following is a common symptom of hypoglycemia?
a) Increased thirst
b) Increased urination
c) Sweating and shakiness
d) Slow breathing
Answer: c) Sweating and shakiness


5. In which situation would a nurse use a sterile dressing technique?
a) When caring for a patient with a clean surgical wound
b) When applying a bandage to a minor abrasion
c) When dressing a wound that is infected or has a risk of infection
d) When administering oral medications
Answer: c) When dressing a wound that is infected or has a risk of infection


6. What is the main role of a midwife during labor and delivery?
a) Provide anesthesia for pain relief
b) Assist the obstetrician during cesarean section
c) Monitor fetal heart rate and maternal well-being
d) Prescribe medications for pain management
Answer: c) Monitor fetal heart rate and maternal well-being


7. The correct placement of an intramuscular injection is:
a) In the subcutaneous tissue
b) In the deltoid muscle
c) In the upper arm vein
d) In the lower leg
Answer: b) In the deltoid muscle


8. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a fractured femur?
a) Encourage walking immediately
b) Administer a high-protein diet
c) Immobilize the leg and monitor for signs of shock
d) Apply heat to the affected area
Answer: c) Immobilize the leg and monitor for signs of shock


9. A nurse is providing education to a patient diagnosed with hypertension. What is the most effective dietary change the nurse should recommend?
a) Increase sodium intake
b) Decrease fat intake
c) Increase protein intake
d) Decrease carbohydrate intake
Answer: b) Decrease fat intake


10. In what position should a patient be placed when undergoing a lumbar puncture procedure?
a) Prone position with legs extended
b) Supine position with legs elevated
c) Lateral recumbent position with knees drawn to the chest
d) Sitting upright with legs dangling
Answer: c) Lateral recumbent position with knees drawn to the chest


These questions are designed to cover a variety of nursing topics relevant to the Andhra Pradesh Nurses and Midwives Council exam.

CHANDIGARH NURSING COUNCIL LICENSING EXAMINATION MODEL QUESTION PAPER 2025


SECTION A: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (10 Questions)

  1. Which of the following is the normal body temperature of a healthy adult? a) 96.8°F
    b) 98.6°F
    c) 100.4°F
    d) 97.2°F
  2. The best method to prevent hospital-acquired infections is: a) Wearing gloves at all times
    b) Frequent hand hygiene
    c) Using antiseptic sprays
    d) Wearing face masks
  3. A nurse caring for an unconscious patient should prioritize which of the following? a) Range of motion exercises
    b) Frequent position changes
    c) Fluid intake monitoring
    d) Emotional support
  4. The normal range of respiratory rate for an adult is: a) 8-12 breaths per minute
    b) 12-20 breaths per minute
    c) 20-28 breaths per minute
    d) 28-36 breaths per minute
  5. What is the normal pH range of blood? a) 6.8-7.2
    b) 7.35-7.45
    c) 7.5-8.0
    d) 6.5-7.0
  6. The primary function of red blood cells is to: a) Fight infection
    b) Transport oxygen
    c) Produce antibodies
    d) Assist in clotting
  7. A sterile field becomes contaminated when: a) It is exposed to air for more than 10 minutes
    b) A non-sterile item touches it
    c) It is touched by gloves
    d) The procedure is completed
  8. Which of the following pulse sites is used during CPR for an adult? a) Radial
    b) Carotid
    c) Brachial
    d) Femoral
  9. The best position for a patient experiencing difficulty in breathing is: a) Supine
    b) Prone
    c) Fowler’s
    d) Trendelenburg
  10. What is the first step in wound care management? a) Applying an antibiotic ointment
    b) Cleaning the wound
    c) Covering with a sterile dressing
    d) Assessing the wound

SECTION B: MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING (2 Questions)

  1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in chronic kidney disease? a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hypocalcemia
    d) Hypernatremia
  2. The most important nursing intervention for a patient with myocardial infarction is: a) Encourage early ambulation
    b) Administer oxygen therapy
    c) Perform chest physiotherapy
    d) Give a high-protein diet

ANSWER KEY

  1. b) 98.6°F
  2. b) Frequent hand hygiene
  3. b) Frequent position changes
  4. b) 12-20 breaths per minute
  5. b) 7.35-7.45
  6. b) Transport oxygen
  7. b) A non-sterile item touches it
  8. b) Carotid
  9. c) Fowler’s
  10. d) Assessing the wound
  11. a) Hyperkalemia
  12. b) Administer oxygen therapy