Total Questions: 34
Time Limit: 1/2 hours
Type: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Section 1: Laboratory Safety & Ethics (20 Questions)

1. The best method to disinfect laboratory surfaces is:
   a) Boiling water
   b) UV radiation
   c) 70% ethanol
   d) Soap and water
2. In a fire emergency, which extinguisher should be used for electrical fires?
   a) Water extinguisher
   b) CO₂ extinguisher
   c) Foam extinguisher
   d) Sand
3. What does MSDS stand for?
   a) Medical Safety Data Sheet
   b) Material Safety Data Sheet
   c) Microbiology Standard Data System
   d) Medical Sterilization and Disinfection Standards
4. What color represents biohazard waste disposal bins?
   a) Blue
   b) Yellow
   c) Red
   d) Green
5. When working with blood samples, gloves should be changed:
   a) Every hour
   b) After each patient/sample
   c) At the end of the shift
   d) Only if visibly contaminated
6. A centrifuge should always be loaded:
   a) With equal weight on both sides
   b) With different weights for balance
   c) To maximum capacity
   d) With open lids
7. Which of the following is considered a high-risk biohazard?
   a) Saline solution
   b) Used blood collection tubes
   c) Distilled water
   d) Cotton swabs
8. If a reagent bottle is found without a label, the best course of action is:
   a) Guess based on color and smell
   b) Use it with caution
   c) Discard it properly
   d) Ask a colleague for confirmation
9. The universal precaution in infection control is:
   a) Only used for highly infectious samples
   b) Following standard safety measures for all patient samples
   c) Washing hands occasionally
   d) Wearing a mask only in respiratory cases
10. The first action to take if a chemical splash occurs in the eyes is:
    a) Blink rapidly to remove the chemical
    b) Immediately rinse with water for at least 15 minutes
    c) Apply eye drops
    d) Cover the eye and seek medical help

Section 2: Microbiology (20 Questions)

11. The causative agent of tuberculosis is:
    a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    c) Escherichia coli
    d) Staphylococcus aureus
12. The most common stain used to detect fungal infections is:
    a) Gram stain
    b) India ink
    c) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
    d) Giemsa stain
13. The primary function of bacterial endospores is:
    a) Reproduction
    b) Survival in harsh conditions
    c) Nutrient absorption
    d) Bacterial movement
14. Blood agar is primarily used to detect:
    a) Gram-negative bacteria
    b) Hemolysis patterns
    c) Fungal growth
    d) Acid-fast bacteria
15. The most effective method for sterilizing surgical instruments is:
    a) Boiling
    b) UV sterilization
    c) Autoclaving
    d) Alcohol wiping
16. Which bacteria is commonly responsible for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
    a) Staphylococcus aureus
    b) Escherichia coli
    c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    d) Clostridium difficile
17. A negative result in a Gram stain appears:
    a) Purple
    b) Pink
    c) Green
    d) Yellow
18. The enzyme responsible for breaking down hydrogen peroxide in bacterial cells is:
    a) Amylase
    b) Catalase
    c) Coagulase
    d) Lipase
19. The causative agent of syphilis is:
    a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    b) Treponema pallidum
    c) Borrelia burgdorferi
    d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
20. MacConkey agar is used for the identification of:
    a) Gram-positive bacteria
    b) Gram-negative bacteria
    c) Fungi
    d) Viruses

Section 3: Hematology (20 Questions)

21. The normal WBC count in adults is:
    a) 4,000-11,000/mm³
    b) 1,000-3,000/mm³
    c) 12,000-20,000/mm³
    d) 100,000-200,000/mm³
22. Which test is used to determine blood clotting ability?
    a) ESR
    b) PT/INR
    c) Hemoglobin test
    d) CBC
23. A low platelet count is called:
    a) Thrombocytosis
    b) Thrombocytopenia
    c) Leukocytosis
    d) Hemophilia
24. The lifespan of a red blood cell is:
    a) 10 days
    b) 30 days
    c) 120 days
    d) 200 days
25. Hemoglobin S is associated with:
    a) Sickle cell anemia
    b) Thalassemia
    c) Leukemia
    d) Hemophilia
26. A patient with hemophilia has a problem with:
    a) White blood cell function
    b) Oxygen transport
    c) Blood clotting
    d) Red blood cell production
27. The reticulocyte count is used to assess:
    a) Platelet function
    b) Bone marrow activity
    c) White blood cell infection
    d) Kidney function
28. Which stain is used for identifying malaria parasites?
    a) Gram stain
    b) Giemsa stain
    c) Wright’s stain
    d) Crystal violet
29. What is the anticoagulant used in blood glucose testing?
    a) EDTA
    b) Sodium citrate
    c) Heparin
    d) Sodium fluoride
30. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?
    a) A+
    b) AB+
    c) O-
    d) B-

Section 4: Clinical Chemistry (20 Questions)

31. The liver enzyme AST is also known as:
    a) Alkaline phosphatase
    b) Alanine aminotransferase
    c) Aspartate aminotransferase
    d) Creatine kinase
32. The normal pH of human blood is:
    a) 6.5
    b) 7.35-7.45
    c) 8.0
    d) 5.5
33. The most common electrolyte found in extracellular fluid is:
    a) Potassium
    b) Sodium
    c) Calcium
    d) Magnesium
34. The primary organ responsible for regulating blood glucose levels is:
    a) Kidney
    b) Liver
    c) Pancreas
    d) Heart

Time: 45 Minutes
Full Marks: 30
(Each question carries 1 mark. Choose the correct answer.)

General Laboratory Practices and Safety

1. Which biosafety level (BSL) is required for handling highly infectious pathogens like Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
   a) BSL-1
   b) BSL-2
   c) BSL-3
   d) BSL-4
2. The process of complete destruction of all forms of microbial life, including spores, is called:
   a) Disinfection
   b) Sterilization
   c) Pasteurization
   d) Antisepsis
3. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential for working in a microbiology lab?
   a) Lab coat
   b) Gloves
   c) Face mask
   d) All of the above
4. What is the correct order of blood collection tubes when using a multi-sample needle?
   a) EDTA, heparin, citrate, serum
   b) Serum, citrate, heparin, EDTA
   c) Citrate, serum, heparin, EDTA
   d) Any order is acceptable
5. Which chemical is commonly used as a fixative in histopathology?
   a) Formalin
   b) Xylene
   c) Acetone
   d) Ethanol

Hematology

6. Which anticoagulant is used for complete blood count (CBC) testing?
   a) Sodium fluoride
   b) EDTA
   c) Sodium citrate
   d) Heparin
7. The normal hemoglobin level in adult males is approximately:
   a) 8-10 g/dL
   b) 12-16 g/dL
   c) 13-17 g/dL
   d) 18-22 g/dL
8. What is the most common white blood cell (WBC) type in a healthy adult?
   a) Eosinophil
   b) Basophil
   c) Lymphocyte
   d) Neutrophil
9. Which clotting factor is absent in hemophilia A?
   a) Factor VIII
   b) Factor IX
   c) Factor X
   d) Factor XII
10. Which type of anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency?
    a) Iron deficiency anemia
    b) Megaloblastic anemia
    c) Aplastic anemia
    d) Hemolytic anemia

Clinical Biochemistry

11. The normal fasting blood glucose level in a healthy adult is:
    a) 50-80 mg/dL
    b) 70-100 mg/dL
    c) 110-150 mg/dL
    d) 150-200 mg/dL
12. Which enzyme is elevated in myocardial infarction?
    a) Amylase
    b) Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)
    c) Alkaline phosphatase
    d) Lipase
13. The main function of albumin in blood is to:
    a) Act as an enzyme
    b) Maintain osmotic pressure
    c) Transport oxygen
    d) Help in clotting
14. A high level of uric acid in the blood is associated with:
    a) Diabetes mellitus
    b) Gout
    c) Hypertension
    d) Hepatitis
15. The pH of normal human blood is:
    a) 6.8
    b) 7.35-7.45
    c) 7.8
    d) 8.0

Microbiology and Parasitology

16. The Gram stain differentiates bacteria based on differences in:
    a) DNA content
    b) Cell wall structure
    c) Ribosome size
    d) Capsule thickness
17. Which of the following bacteria is acid-fast?
    a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    b) Escherichia coli
    c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    d) Staphylococcus aureus
18. Which test is used to identify Staphylococcus aureus?
    a) Coagulase test
    b) Indole test
    c) Catalase test
    d) Oxidase test
19. The causative agent of malaria is:
    a) Trypanosoma
    b) Plasmodium
    c) Leishmania
    d) Entamoeba
20. The vector for dengue fever is:
    a) Anopheles mosquito
    b) Aedes mosquito
    c) Culex mosquito
    d) Sandfly

Immunology and Serology

21. The Widal test is used to diagnose:
    a) Tuberculosis
    b) Typhoid fever
    c) Syphilis
    d) Malaria
22. Which immunoglobulin is the first to appear in an acute infection?
    a) IgA
    b) IgM
    c) IgG
    d) IgE
23. The ELISA test is commonly used for detecting:
    a) Blood group
    b) HIV infection
    c) Malaria
    d) Typhoid
24. The Mantoux test is used for diagnosing:
    a) Hepatitis B
    b) Tuberculosis
    c) HIV/AIDS
    d) Syphilis
25. The Rh factor is determined by the presence of:
    a) A antigen
    b) B antigen
    c) D antigen
    d) O antigen

Urinalysis and Clinical Pathology

26. The presence of ketones in urine may indicate:
    a) Hypertension
    b) Diabetes mellitus
    c) Urinary tract infection
    d) Hepatitis
27. Which crystal is commonly found in acidic urine?
    a) Triple phosphate
    b) Ammonium urate
    c) Uric acid
    d) Calcium carbonate
28. The confirmatory test for protein in urine is:
    a) Benedict’s test
    b) Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) test
    c) Biuret test
    d) Coagulation test
29. Which parameter is not normally found in urine?
    a) Glucose
    b) Urobilinogen
    c) Urea
    d) Creatinine
30. The color of normal urine is due to the presence of:
    a) Hemoglobin
    b) Bilirubin
    c) Urochrome
    d) Myoglobin

CTEVT CMLT MCQ Answer Key

Here’s another set of 35 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for the Diploma in Medical Laboratory Technology (DMLT) License Exam with answer keys at the end. After practicing these questionsyou can ace exams in Nepal and India.

1. Hematology & Blood Banking

1. The lifespan of red blood cells (RBCs) is approximately:
   a) 60 days
   b) 90 days
   c) 120 days
   d) 150 days
2. Which anticoagulant is used for coagulation studies?
   a) EDTA
   b) Sodium citrate
   c) Heparin
   d) Oxalate
3. The universal donor blood group is:
   a) A
   b) B
   c) AB
   d) O
4. Howell-Jolly bodies in RBCs are associated with:
   a) Sickle cell disease
   b) Iron deficiency anemia
   c) Post-splenectomy
   d) Hemophilia
5. The normal hemoglobin level in adult males is:
   a) 8 – 10 g/dL
   b) 10 – 12 g/dL
   c) 13 – 17 g/dL
   d) 18 – 20 g/dL
6. Which blood component is primarily responsible for clot formation?
   a) RBCs
   b) WBCs
   c) Platelets
   d) Plasma
7. A decrease in WBC count is known as:
   a) Leukocytosis
   b) Leukopenia
   c) Erythrocytosis
   d) Thrombocytosis
8. A left shift in the WBC count refers to an increase in:
   a) Mature neutrophils
   b) Immature neutrophils
   c) Lymphocytes
   d) Monocytes
9. Blood collected for prothrombin time (PT) testing should be stored at:
   a) Room temperature
   b) 2-8°C
   c) -20°C
   d) 37°C
10. The preferred site for bone marrow aspiration in adults is:
    a) Tibia
    b) Sternum
    c) Femur
    d) Iliac crest

2. Clinical Biochemistry

11. Which organ is primarily responsible for detoxification of drugs?
    a) Kidney
    b) Liver
    c) Spleen
    d) Pancreas
12. A high level of serum bilirubin causes:
    a) Anemia
    b) Jaundice
    c) Cyanosis
    d) Edema
13. The normal fasting blood glucose level in mg/dL is:
    a) 50 – 70
    b) 70 – 100
    c) 100 – 150
    d) 150 – 200
14. Which test is commonly used to assess kidney function?
    a) Troponin test
    b) Creatinine test
    c) AST test
    d) Bilirubin test
15. The normal range of serum sodium in mmol/L is:
    a) 90 – 110
    b) 135 – 145
    c) 150 – 165
    d) 170 – 190
16. The term “lipemia” in a blood sample refers to:
    a) High protein levels
    b) High fat content
    c) High glucose levels
    d) High hemoglobin
17. A positive Benedict’s test indicates the presence of:
    a) Protein
    b) Glucose
    c) Bilirubin
    d) Ketones
18. Which enzyme is commonly elevated in myocardial infarction?
    a) ALT
    b) CK-MB
    c) Amylase
    d) Lipase
19. Hyperglycemia is a characteristic feature of:
    a) Liver disease
    b) Diabetes mellitus
    c) Addison’s disease
    d) Hyperthyroidism
20. The most commonly used anticoagulant in biochemistry tests is:
    a) EDTA
    b) Heparin
    c) Sodium citrate
    d) Oxalate

3. Microbiology & Parasitology

21. Gram-negative bacteria appear ____ under Gram staining.
    a) Purple
    b) Red/Pink
    c) Blue
    d) Green
22. The causative agent of tuberculosis is:
    a) Mycobacterium leprae
    b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    c) Escherichia coli
    d) Bacillus anthracis
23. Which test is used to detect typhoid fever?
    a) Mantoux test
    b) Widal test
    c) VDRL test
    d) ELISA test
24. Malaria is transmitted by:
    a) Houseflies
    b) Anopheles mosquitoes
    c) Ticks
    d) Lice
25. Which medium is used for the culture of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
    a) Blood agar
    b) MacConkey agar
    c) Lowenstein-Jensen medium
    d) Chocolate agar
26. The causative organism of syphilis is:
    a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    b) Treponema pallidum
    c) Chlamydia trachomatis
    d) Haemophilus ducreyi
27. Which disease is caused by a protozoan?
    a) Tuberculosis
    b) Malaria
    c) Cholera
    d) Tetanus
28. The most common fungal infection in immunocompromised patients is:
    a) Cryptococcus
    b) Candida
    c) Aspergillus
    d) Histoplasma
29. The causative agent of tetanus is:
    a) Clostridium perfringens
    b) Clostridium tetani
    c) Bacillus anthracis
    d) Streptococcus pyogenes
30. E. coli is commonly found in:
    a) Skin
    b) Intestine
    c) Lungs
    d) Blood

4. Histopathology & Cytology

31. The commonly used fixative for biopsy specimens is:
    a) Bouin’s fluid
    b) 10% formalin
    c) Acetone
    d) Glutaraldehyde
32. The term “necrosis” refers to:
    a) Controlled cell death
    b) Uncontrolled cell death
    c) Cell proliferation
    d) Cell differentiation
33. The best stain for detecting fungi in histology is:
    a) Giemsa stain
    b) PAS stain
    c) Hematoxylin and eosin
    d) Gram stain
34. A papanicolaou (Pap) smear is used to detect:
    a) Tuberculosis
    b) Cervical cancer
    c) Malaria
    d) Syphilis
35. Which type of biopsy removes an entire lesion?
    a) Incisional biopsy
    b) Excisional biopsy
    c) Needle biopsy
    d) Punch biopsy

Answer Key

1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c, 5-c, 6-c, 7-b, 8-b, 9-b, 10-d
11-b, 12-b, 13-b, 14-b, 15-b, 16-b, 17-b, 18-b, 19-b, 20-b
21-b, 22-b, 23-b, 24-b, 25-c, 26-b, 27-b, 28-b, 29-b, 30-b
31-b, 32-b, 33-b, 34-b, 35-b

Here’s another set of 35 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for the Diploma in Medical Laboratory Technology (DMLT) License Exam with answer keys at the end.

1. Hematology & Blood Banking

1. The normal range of platelet count in an adult is:
   a) 50,000 – 100,000/µL
   b) 100,000 – 150,000/µL
   c) 150,000 – 450,000/µL
   d) 450,000 – 600,000/µL
2. Which of the following stains is used for reticulocyte count?
   a) Giemsa stain
   b) Methylene blue
   c) Wright stain
   d) Sudan black B
3. A blood smear showing sickle-shaped RBCs is indicative of:
   a) Thalassemia
   b) Iron deficiency anemia
   c) Sickle cell anemia
   d) Aplastic anemia
4. Which clotting factor is deficient in hemophilia A?
   a) Factor V
   b) Factor VII
   c) Factor VIII
   d) Factor IX
5. What is the best temperature for storing blood in a blood bank?
   a) 0°C
   b) 4°C
   c) 10°C
   d) 37°C
6. Which of the following blood components is used for patients with severe burns?
   a) Whole blood
   b) Plasma
   c) Platelets
   d) Cryoprecipitate
7. The commonest cause of macrocytic anemia is:
   a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
   b) Iron deficiency
   c) Hemolysis
   d) Chronic blood loss
8. The first step in blood coagulation is:
   a) Platelet aggregation
   b) Clot retraction
   c) Vasoconstriction
   d) Activation of coagulation factors
9. Which of the following anticoagulants is used in the Westergren method of ESR estimation?
   a) Heparin
   b) EDTA
   c) Sodium citrate
   d) Oxalate
10. Which white blood cell increases in allergic reactions?
    a) Neutrophils
    b) Basophils
    c) Monocytes
    d) Lymphocytes

2. Clinical Biochemistry

11. The normal range of serum creatinine in an adult is:
    a) 0.1 – 0.5 mg/dL
    b) 0.6 – 1.2 mg/dL
    c) 1.5 – 2.5 mg/dL
    d) 2.5 – 3.5 mg/dL
12. Which test is used to measure long-term blood glucose control?
    a) Fasting blood sugar
    b) Postprandial blood sugar
    c) HbA1c
    d) Random blood sugar
13. A high level of serum amylase is indicative of:
    a) Myocardial infarction
    b) Pancreatitis
    c) Hepatitis
    d) Kidney failure
14. The principal buffer system in the human body is:
    a) Bicarbonate buffer
    b) Phosphate buffer
    c) Protein buffer
    d) Hemoglobin buffer
15. The enzyme commonly elevated in liver disease is:
    a) CK-MB
    b) AST (SGOT)
    c) LDH
    d) Amylase
16. The presence of ketone bodies in urine indicates:
    a) Kidney disease
    b) Diabetes mellitus
    c) Hypertension
    d) Liver failure
17. Hyperkalemia refers to:
    a) Low sodium levels
    b) High potassium levels
    c) Low calcium levels
    d) High magnesium levels
18. The normal pH range of blood is:
    a) 6.8 – 7.2
    b) 7.35 – 7.45
    c) 7.8 – 8.0
    d) 8.5 – 9.0
19. The confirmatory test for protein in urine is:
    a) Dipstick test
    b) Heat coagulation test
    c) Sulfosalicylic acid test
    d) Benedict’s test
20. Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas to lower blood glucose levels?
    a) Insulin
    b) Glucagon
    c) Cortisol
    d) Epinephrine

3. Microbiology & Parasitology

21. Which bacterial structure is responsible for motility?
    a) Capsule
    b) Pili
    c) Flagella
    d) Endospore
22. The causative agent of gas gangrene is:
    a) Clostridium perfringens
    b) Staphylococcus aureus
    c) Escherichia coli
    d) Bacillus anthracis
23. The commonest cause of bacterial pneumonia is:
    a) Klebsiella pneumoniae
    b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
24. The most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is:
    a) Streptococcus pyogenes
    b) Escherichia coli
    c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    d) Candida albicans
25. The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to identify:
    a) Gram-negative bacteria
    b) Gram-positive bacteria
    c) Acid-fast bacteria
    d) Fungi
26. Which parasite causes sleeping sickness?
    a) Plasmodium
    b) Trypanosoma
    c) Leishmania
    d) Entamoeba
27. The Schick test is used for the diagnosis of:
    a) Tuberculosis
    b) Diphtheria
    c) Cholera
    d) Syphilis
28. Which sterilization method is used for culture media?
    a) Autoclaving
    b) Filtration
    c) Dry heat sterilization
    d) Radiation
29. The causative agent of leprosy is:
    a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    b) Mycobacterium leprae
    c) Treponema pallidum
    d) Rickettsia prowazekii
30. The primary host of Plasmodium is:
    a) Humans
    b) Mosquitoes
    c) Dogs
    d) Birds

4. Histopathology & Cytology

31. The normal fixative used in histopathology is:
    a) Formalin
    b) Glutaraldehyde
    c) Bouin’s solution
    d) Acetone
32. The main stain used for tissue section examination is:
    a) Gram stain
    b) Giemsa stain
    c) Hematoxylin and eosin
    d) PAS stain
33. The term “hyperplasia” refers to:
    a) Abnormal cell growth
    b) Increased cell number
    c) Decreased cell number
    d) Cell necrosis
34. Which cytological test is used for detecting cervical cancer?
    a) ELISA
    b) Pap smear
    c) VDRL
    d) Widal test
35. The commonest tumor of the brain is:
    a) Glioma
    b) Lymphoma
    c) Adenoma
    d) Osteosarcoma

Answer Key

1-c, 2-b, 3-c, 4-c, 5-b, 6-b, 7-a, 8-c, 9-c, 10-b
11-b, 12-c, 13-b, 14-a, 15-b, 16-b, 17-b, 18-b, 19-c, 20-a
21-c, 22-a, 23-c, 24-b, 25-c, 26-b, 27-b, 28-a, 29-b, 30-b
31-a, 32-c, 33-b, 34-b, 35-a

Here are 35 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to the Diploma in Medical Laboratory Technology (DMLT) license examination. The answer keys are provided at the end.

Diploma in Medical Laboratory Technology (DMLT) MCQs

1. Hematology & Blood Banking

1. Which anticoagulant is used in an EDTA tube?
   a) Sodium citrate
   b) Heparin
   c) EDTA
   d) Sodium fluoride
2. The normal hemoglobin range for adult males is:
   a) 10-12 g/dL
   b) 13-17 g/dL
   c) 8-10 g/dL
   d) 18-20 g/dL
3. Which stain is used in peripheral blood smear examination?
   a) Gram stain
   b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
   c) Leishman stain
   d) India ink
4. Which of the following blood groups is considered the universal donor?
   a) AB+
   b) O-
   c) A+
   d) B-
5. Which test is used to measure clotting time?
   a) ESR
   b) Bleeding time
   c) Prothrombin time (PT)
   d) Reticulocyte count
6. The commonest cause of microcytic hypochromic anemia is:
   a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
   b) Iron deficiency
   c) Aplastic anemia
   d) Sickle cell anemia
7. Which blood component is used in hemophilia patients?
   a) Whole blood
   b) Packed RBCs
   c) Fresh frozen plasma
   d) Platelets
8. The life span of red blood cells (RBCs) is:
   a) 30 days
   b) 60 days
   c) 120 days
   d) 180 days
9. Which of the following tests detects fetal-maternal hemorrhage?
   a) Coombs test
   b) Kleihauer-Betke test
   c) D-dimer test
   d) FDP test
10. The anticoagulant of choice for blood glucose estimation is:
    a) EDTA
    b) Sodium citrate
    c) Heparin
    d) Sodium fluoride

2. Clinical Biochemistry

11. The normal fasting blood glucose range is:
    a) 50-80 mg/dL
    b) 70-110 mg/dL
    c) 120-180 mg/dL
    d) 200-250 mg/dL
12. Urea is a waste product of:
    a) Carbohydrate metabolism
    b) Protein metabolism
    c) Lipid metabolism
    d) Nucleic acid metabolism
13. The enzyme measured in myocardial infarction is:
    a) Amylase
    b) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
    c) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
    d) Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)
14. Which hormone regulates blood calcium levels?
    a) Insulin
    b) Thyroxine
    c) Parathyroid hormone
    d) Cortisol
15. The normal serum sodium level is:
    a) 90-110 mEq/L
    b) 135-145 mEq/L
    c) 150-160 mEq/L
    d) 180-200 mEq/L
16. The test used for early detection of diabetes is:
    a) Fasting blood sugar
    b) Postprandial blood sugar
    c) HbA1c
    d) Serum fructosamine
17. Which of the following enzymes is elevated in acute pancreatitis?
    a) Acid phosphatase
    b) Amylase
    c) Alkaline phosphatase
    d) Creatinine kinase
18. Hyperbilirubinemia leads to:
    a) Anemia
    b) Jaundice
    c) Leukemia
    d) Edema
19. Which of the following lipoproteins is considered “good cholesterol”?
    a) LDL
    b) VLDL
    c) HDL
    d) Chylomicrons
20. The reagent used in the Benedict’s test detects:
    a) Proteins
    b) Glucose
    c) Ketones
    d) Lipids

3. Microbiology & Parasitology

21. Gram-positive bacteria appear _______ under the microscope.
    a) Pink
    b) Blue
    c) Green
    d) Red
22. The causative organism of tuberculosis is:
    a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    c) Salmonella typhi
    d) Escherichia coli
23. MacConkey agar is selective for:
    a) Gram-negative bacteria
    b) Gram-positive bacteria
    c) Fungi
    d) Parasites
24. Which organism is responsible for malaria?
    a) Trypanosoma
    b) Leishmania
    c) Plasmodium
    d) Toxoplasma
25. The stool test is used to detect:
    a) Bacteria
    b) Parasites
    c) Blood
    d) All of the above
26. India ink preparation is used to detect:
    a) Cryptococcus
    b) Candida
    c) Aspergillus
    d) Pneumocystis
27. The causative agent of syphilis is:
    a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    b) Treponema pallidum
    c) Chlamydia trachomatis
    d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
28. Which test is used for typhoid diagnosis?
    a) VDRL
    b) Widal test
    c) ELISA
    d) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
29. The causative agent of cholera is:
    a) Vibrio cholerae
    b) Salmonella typhi
    c) Shigella dysenteriae
    d) Clostridium botulinum
30. The sterilization method used for heat-sensitive materials is:
    a) Autoclaving
    b) Dry heat
    c) Filtration
    d) Incineration

4. Histopathology & Cytology

31. Which fixative is most commonly used in histopathology?
    a) Formalin
    b) Ethanol
    c) Acetone
    d) Bouin’s solution
32. The stain used in Pap smear examination is:
    a) Hematoxylin and eosin
    b) Giemsa stain
    c) PAS stain
    d) Papanicolaou stain
33. A malignant tumor of epithelial origin is called:
    a) Sarcoma
    b) Carcinoma
    c) Leukemia
    d) Lymphoma
34. Which organ is affected in nephrotic syndrome?
    a) Liver
    b) Kidney
    c) Heart
    d) Lung
35. The primary function of histopathology is to:
    a) Study genetic disorders
    b) Diagnose diseases based on tissue examination
    c) Study cell structures
    d) Identify bacteria

Answer Key

1-c, 2-b, 3-c, 4-b, 5-c, 6-b, 7-c, 8-c, 9-b, 10-d
11-b, 12-b, 13-d, 14-c, 15-b, 16-c, 17-b, 18-b, 19-c, 20-b
21-b, 22-b, 23-a, 24-c, 25-d, 26-a, 27-b, 28-b, 29-a, 30-c
31-a, 32-d, 33-b, 34-b, 35-b