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Top 50 multiple‐choice questions (MCQs) Model Questions covering a range of pharmacy topic For Pharmacy license examination

Pharmacy license examination is one of the tough examination throughout nation. Below is a set of 50 multiple‐choice questions (MCQs) covering a range of pharmacy topics—from pharmacology and pharmacokinetics to pharmacy practice and patient safety. The answer key is provided at the end.


1. Beta-Blockers

  1. Which of the following is classified as a non‐selective beta‑adrenergic receptor antagonist?
     A) Propranolol
     B) Metoprolol
     C) Atenolol
     D) Bisoprolol
  2. A patient with hypertension is prescribed a beta‑blocker. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be used?
     A) Propranolol
     B) Amlodipine
     C) Losartan
     D) Hydrochlorothiazide

2. Diuretics

  1. Which of the following is a loop diuretic used for the treatment of edema?
     A) Hydrochlorothiazide
     B) Furosemide
     C) Spironolactone
     D) Amiloride
  2. Thiazide diuretics primarily act on which segment of the nephron?
     A) Proximal convoluted tubule
     B) Loop of Henle
     C) Distal convoluted tubule
     D) Collecting duct

3. Cardiovascular Agents

  1. Which of the following is an angiotensin‑converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor?
     A) Lisinopril
     B) Losartan
     C) Amlodipine
     D) Metoprolol
  2. Amlodipine is best classified as which type of medication?
     A) Calcium channel blocker
     B) ACE inhibitor
     C) Beta‑blocker
     D) Diuretic

4. Antibiotics

  1. Amoxicillin belongs to which class of antibiotics?
     A) Penicillins
     B) Cephalosporins
     C) Macrolides
     D) Fluoroquinolones
  2. Which of the following is an aminoglycoside antibiotic?
     A) Gentamicin
     B) Amoxicillin
     C) Ciprofloxacin
     D) Clindamycin

5. Gastrointestinal Medications

  1. Which of the following medications is classified as a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?
     A) Omeprazole
     B) Ranitidine
     C) Metoclopramide
     D) Sucralfate
  2. Which of the following adverse effects has been associated with long-term proton pump inhibitor use?
     A) Increased risk of fractures
     B) Hypomagnesemia
     C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
     D) All of the above

6. Central Nervous System (CNS) Agents

  1. Which of the following is a commonly prescribed selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
     A) Fluoxetine
     B) Venlafaxine
     C) Bupropion
     D) Mirtazapine
  2. Flumazenil is used as a reversal agent for the overdose of which class of drugs?
     A) Benzodiazepines
     B) Opioids
     C) Barbiturates
     D) Antidepressants
  3. Which medication is a first‑line treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
     A) Metformin
     B) Glyburide
     C) Insulin
     D) Pioglitazone
  4. Which of the following is used in the management of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
     A) Methylphenidate
     B) Haloperidol
     C) Risperidone
     D) Clozapine
  5. Which of the following drugs is considered a direct thrombin inhibitor?
     A) Dabigatran
     B) Warfarin
     C) Heparin
     D) Rivaroxaban

7. Pain Management and Inflammation

  1. A common adverse effect of opioid analgesics is:
     A) Constipation
     B) Diarrhea
     C) Hypertension
     D) Insomnia
  2. Which of the following is a selective COX‑2 inhibitor?
     A) Celecoxib
     B) Ibuprofen
     C) Naproxen
     D) Indomethacin

8. Drug Mechanisms and Pharmacokinetics

  1. Which route of drug administration bypasses first‑pass metabolism?
     A) Sublingual
     B) Oral
     C) Rectal
     D) Intramuscular
  2. The primary organ responsible for the metabolism of most drugs is the:
     A) Liver
     B) Kidney
     C) Heart
     D) Lungs
  3. The term “bioavailability” is best defined as:
     A) The fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged
     B) The rate at which a drug is absorbed
     C) The degree to which a drug binds to plasma proteins
     D) The distribution of a drug into body tissues
  4. Plasma protein binding is an important consideration during which phase of pharmacokinetics?
     A) Distribution
     B) Absorption
     C) Metabolism
     D) Excretion
  5. The minimum plasma concentration required to produce a therapeutic effect is known as the:
     A) Minimum effective concentration (MEC)
     B) Maximum safe concentration
     C) Therapeutic index
     D) Peak concentration
  6. The “half‑life” of a drug is defined as the time required for its plasma concentration to:
     A) Decrease by half
     B) Reach maximum concentration
     C) Achieve steady state
     D) Be completely eliminated

9. Endocrine and Bone Health

  1. Which of the following is considered the most effective treatment for Parkinson’s disease motor symptoms?
     A) Levodopa/Carbidopa
     B) Selegiline
     C) Amantadine
     D) Bromocriptine
  2. Which medication is used to treat hypothyroidism?
     A) Levothyroxine
     B) Methimazole
     C) Propylthiouracil
     D) Iodine
  3. Bisphosphonates are primarily used in the treatment of:
     A) Osteoporosis
     B) Hypertension
     C) Diabetes mellitus
     D) Hyperlipidemia

10. Immunology and Transplantation

  1. Which of the following is used as an immunosuppressant in organ transplant patients?
     A) Cyclosporine
     B) Amoxicillin
     C) Simvastatin
     D) Furosemide

11. Vaccines and Biologics

  1. Which is the most common route for administering vaccines?
     A) Intramuscular
     B) Oral
     C) Intravenous
     D) Subcutaneous
  2. Which of the following is an example of a biologic medication?
     A) Insulin
     B) Acetaminophen
     C) Ibuprofen
     D) Lisinopril

12. Hematology and Coagulation

  1. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of warfarin?
     A) Inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase
     B) Direct thrombin inhibition
     C) Inhibition of platelet aggregation
     D) Promotion of fibrinolysis
  2. An abrupt discontinuation of beta‑blockers may result in:
     A) Rebound hypertension
     B) Bradycardia
     C) Hypotension
     D) Hyperkalemia

13. Allergy and Respiratory

  1. Which of the following is a first‑generation antihistamine?
     A) Diphenhydramine
     B) Loratadine
     C) Cetirizine
     D) Fexofenadine
  2. Cetirizine is best classified as a:
     A) Second‑generation antihistamine
     B) First‑generation antihistamine
     C) Corticosteroid
     D) Decongestant
  3. Which of the following is commonly used as a nasal decongestant available over the counter?
     A) Oxymetazoline
     B) Loratadine
     C) Cetirizine
     D) Acetaminophen
  4. A common side effect of first‑generation antihistamines is:
     A) Sedation
     B) Hypertension
     C) Insomnia
     D) Diarrhea

14. Psychiatric and Neurologic Drugs

  1. Which of the following medications is classified as an antipsychotic?
     A) Risperidone
     B) Sertraline
     C) Valproic acid
     D) Lithium
  2. Flumazenil is primarily used to reverse the effects of which drug class?
     A) Benzodiazepines
     B) Opioids
     C) Barbiturates
     D) Antidepressants

15. Miscellaneous Topics and Pharmacy Practice

  1. A “black box warning” on a drug label signifies that the medication:
     A) Carries a risk of serious or life‑threatening adverse effects
     B) Requires routine dose adjustments
     C) Has minor side effects only
     D) May interact with food supplements
  2. Which of the following is a common contributing factor to medication errors in a pharmacy setting?
     A) Similar drug names
     B) Incorrect dosing
     C) Illegible handwriting
     D) All of the above
  3. Medication therapy management (MTM) services provided by pharmacists always include:
     A) A comprehensive medication review
     B) Disease diagnosis
     C) Medication prescribing
     D) Performing surgical procedures
  4. In the compounding of medications, which of the following is critical?
     A) Ensuring proper sterility
     B) Avoiding contamination
     C) Accurate measurement of ingredients
     D) All of the above
  5. Which of the following statements about generic medications is true?
     A) They contain the same active ingredient as their brand‑name counterparts
     B) They are less effective than brand‑name drugs
     C) They always cost more than brand‑name drugs
     D) They are not regulated by the FDA
  6. Anticholinergic drugs most commonly cause which of the following side effects?
     A) Dry mouth
     B) Diarrhea
     C) Bradycardia
     D) Excessive sweating
  7. Which of the following medications is used for smoking cessation?
     A) Bupropion
     B) Methadone
     C) Naloxone
     D) Lorazepam
  8. Which of the following is a key aspect of drug distribution in the body?
     A) Plasma protein binding
     B) Gastrointestinal absorption
     C) Hepatic first‑pass metabolism
     D) Renal excretion
  9. The term “therapeutic index” is best described as the ratio of:
     A) Toxic dose to therapeutic dose
     B) Peak concentration to half‑life
     C) Absorption rate to elimination rate
     D) Effective dose to placebo effect
  10. Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of opioid overdose?
     A) Naloxone
     B) Flumazenil
     C) Naltrexone
     D) Atropine
  11. In pharmacotherapy, what is the primary goal of medication therapy management (MTM)?
     A) To optimize therapeutic outcomes and reduce medication-related problems
     B) To replace the prescriber’s role in therapy
     C) To market new drugs to patients
     D) To limit patient access to medications
  12. Which of the following best describes the term “first-pass metabolism”?
     A) The reduction in drug concentration before it reaches systemic circulation
     B) The time taken to reach peak plasma levels
     C) The elimination of drug metabolites
     D) The duration of a drug’s therapeutic effect
  13. In compounding practice, which of the following is essential to ensure patient safety?
     A) Adherence to sterile techniques and proper calculations
     B) Relying on outdated formulas
     C) Minimizing quality control measures
     D) Delegating all tasks without supervision

Answer Key

  1. A
  2. A
  3. B
  4. C
  5. A
  6. A
  7. A
  8. A
  9. A
  10. D
  11. A
  12. A
  13. A
  14. A
  15. A
  16. A
  17. A
  18. A
  19. A
  20. A
  21. A
  22. A
  23. A
  24. A
  25. A
  26. A
  27. A
  28. A
  29. A
  30. A
  31. A
  32. A
  33. A
  34. A
  35. A
  36. A
  37. A
  38. A
  39. D
  40. A
  41. D
  42. A
  43. A
  44. A
  45. A
  46. A
  47. A
  48. A
  49. A
  50. A

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