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About CJ

A clinician! Physician and a great doctor practicing for more than 5 years.

health professional

TU IOM Teaching Hospital Staff Nurse Model Question (MCQ) Top 30 Questions

Here are TU IOM Teaching Hospital Staff Nurse Model Question (MCQ) Top 30 Questions to help you eaasily pass the next examination.

General Nursing & Medical-Surgical Nursing

  1. What is the normal range of hemoglobin in adult females?
    a) 8-10 g/dL
    b) 10-12 g/dL
    c) 12-16 g/dL
    d) 14-18 g/dL
  2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with hyperkalemia?
    a) Hypocalcemia
    b) Hypernatremia
    c) Hyperphosphatemia
    d) Hypomagnesemia
  3. Which of the following is the earliest sign of hypoxia?
    a) Cyanosis
    b) Restlessness
    c) Bradycardia
    d) Decreased urine output
  4. What is the primary purpose of Fowler’s position?
    a) Reduce back pain
    b) Promote lung expansion
    c) Improve venous return
    d) Prevent pressure ulcers
  5. Which nursing action is most appropriate for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?
    a) Administer oral antihistamine
    b) Give IV epinephrine
    c) Apply warm compress
    d) Monitor urine output

Obstetrics & Gynecology Nursing

  1. Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection reflex?
    a) Estrogen
    b) Prolactin
    c) Oxytocin
    d) Progesterone
  2. A postpartum mother should be advised to report which of the following signs immediately?
    a) Vaginal discharge lasting 4 weeks
    b) Breast engorgement
    c) Sudden heavy vaginal bleeding
    d) Mild abdominal cramping
  3. What is the normal duration of a menstrual cycle?
    a) 14-20 days
    b) 21-35 days
    c) 36-42 days
    d) 28-45 days
  4. Which of the following is a characteristic sign of pre-eclampsia?
    a) Hyperglycemia
    b) Proteinuria
    c) Hyperbilirubinemia
    d) Leukocytosis
  5. The best position for a pregnant woman with hypotension is:
    a) Supine
    b) Left lateral
    c) Right lateral
    d) Trendelenburg

Pediatric Nursing

  1. The first vaccine given to a newborn is:
    a) BCG
    b) OPV
    c) DPT
    d) Hepatitis B
  2. What is the normal birth weight of a newborn?
    a) 1.5-2.0 kg
    b) 2.5-4.0 kg
    c) 4.5-5.0 kg
    d) 5.0-6.0 kg
  3. The most common cause of diarrhea in children is:
    a) Rotavirus
    b) Salmonella
    c) E. coli
    d) Staphylococcus
  4. Which condition is characterized by a barking cough in children?
    a) Pneumonia
    b) Croup
    c) Asthma
    d) Bronchitis
  5. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is:
    a) 20-30 breaths per minute
    b) 30-60 breaths per minute
    c) 60-80 breaths per minute
    d) 10-20 breaths per minute

Mental Health Nursing

  1. The drug of choice for bipolar disorder is:
    a) Lithium
    b) Haloperidol
    c) Fluoxetine
    d) Lorazepam
  2. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the best nursing intervention?
    a) Tell them the voices are not real
    b) Encourage them to talk about their feelings
    c) Ignore their hallucinations
    d) Restrain the patient immediately
  3. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with depression?
    a) Dopamine
    b) Serotonin
    c) Acetylcholine
    d) GABA
  4. The priority nursing intervention for a suicidal patient is:
    a) Encouraging social interactions
    b) Removing harmful objects
    c) Allowing the patient to stay alone for self-reflection
    d) Giving sedatives
  5. The main side effect of antipsychotic drugs is:
    a) Hypotension
    b) Extrapyramidal symptoms
    c) Hyperglycemia
    d) Tachycardia

Community Health Nursing

  1. The best method to dispose of biomedical waste is:
    a) Open dumping
    b) Incineration
    c) Burying
    d) Recycling
  2. ORS is primarily used to treat:
    a) Hypertension
    b) Dehydration
    c) Hyperglycemia
    d) Anemia
  3. What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis?
    a) Bloodborne
    b) Airborne
    c) Vector-borne
    d) Fecal-oral
  4. The recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding is:
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months
  5. The first step in conducting a community health assessment is:
    a) Data collection
    b) Implementation
    c) Evaluation
    d) Planning

Pharmacology

  1. The antidote for opioid overdose is:
    a) Atropine
    b) Naloxone
    c) Flumazenil
    d) Vitamin K
  2. Which of the following drugs is a beta-blocker?
    a) Amlodipine
    b) Metoprolol
    c) Captopril
    d) Furosemide
  3. What is the main side effect of loop diuretics?
    a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hypernatremia
    d) Hyperglycemia
  4. Insulin should be administered:
    a) Intramuscularly
    b) Intravenously
    c) Subcutaneously
    d) Orally
  5. Warfarin is an example of:
    a) Antihypertensive
    b) Anticoagulant
    c) Antibiotic
    d) Analgesic

Answer Key

  1. c) 12-16 g/dL
  2. c) Hyperphosphatemia
  3. b) Restlessness
  4. b) Promote lung expansion
  5. b) Give IV epinephrine
  6. c) Oxytocin
  7. c) Sudden heavy vaginal bleeding
  8. b) 21-35 days
  9. b) Proteinuria
  10. b) Left lateral
  11. a) BCG
  12. b) 2.5-4.0 kg
  13. a) Rotavirus
  14. b) Croup
  15. b) 30-60 breaths per minute
  16. a) Lithium
  17. b) Encourage them to talk about their feelings
  18. b) Serotonin
  19. b) Removing harmful objects
  20. b) Extrapyramidal symptoms
  21. b) Incineration
  22. b) Dehydration
  23. b) Airborne
  24. b) 6 months
  25. a) Data collection
  26. b) Naloxone
  27. b) Metoprolol
  28. b) Hypokalemia
  29. c) Subcutaneously
  30. b) Anticoagulant

Nepal Nursing Council License Examination MCQs 2081 Model Questions Set (NNC)

Here are 20 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) designed for the Nepal Nursing Council (NNC) License Examination 2081.

1. Which vitamin deficiency leads to pernicious anemia?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D

2. What is the normal range of hemoglobin in adult females?

A) 9-11 g/dL
B) 10-12 g/dL
C) 12-16 g/dL
D) 14-18 g/dL

3. What is the universal precaution to prevent hospital-acquired infections?

A) Wearing gloves only
B) Hand hygiene practices
C) Using antibiotics for all patients
D) Keeping patients in isolation

4. The Apgar score is used to assess which of the following?

A) Fetal heart rate
B) Newborn’s adaptation to extrauterine life
C) Maternal blood pressure
D) Placental function

5. What is the main function of insulin in the body?

A) To break down fats
B) To lower blood sugar levels
C) To increase blood pressure
D) To digest proteins

6. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration in an infant?

A) Increased urination
B) Bulging fontanelle
C) Sunken eyes and dry mouth
D) Excessive saliva production

7. Which drug is used as the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?

A) Paracetamol
B) Epinephrine
C) Ibuprofen
D) Hydrocortisone

8. What is the primary mode of transmission of hepatitis B virus?

A) Airborne droplets
B) Contaminated food and water
C) Blood and body fluids
D) Vector-borne transmission

A) Deltoid muscle
B) Ventrogluteal muscle
C) Vastus lateralis muscle
D) Dorsogluteal muscle

10. A patient with hypokalemia is likely to experience which symptom?

A) Hyperreflexia
B) Muscle weakness
C) Hypertension
D) Decreased urine output

11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hypoglycemia?

A) Sweating
B) Confusion
C) Bradycardia
D) Tremors

12. What is the normal respiratory rate of a newborn?

A) 10-20 breaths per minute
B) 20-30 breaths per minute
C) 30-60 breaths per minute
D) 60-80 breaths per minute

13. What does a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3 indicate?

A) Normal consciousness
B) Moderate brain injury
C) Deep coma or brain death
D) Mild confusion

14. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with kidney failure?

A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypokalemia

15. What is the normal pH range of arterial blood?

A) 6.8-7.2
B) 7.35-7.45
C) 7.5-8.0
D) 8.0-8.5

A) A doctor making decisions for the patient
B) The patient agreeing to a procedure without explanation
C) The patient’s voluntary agreement after receiving complete information
D) A family member signing the consent without the patient’s knowledge

17. A nurse suspects a patient has tuberculosis (TB). What is the best initial diagnostic test?

A) Chest X-ray
B) Sputum examination for acid-fast bacilli (AFB)
C) Tuberculin skin test
D) Complete blood count (CBC)

18. Which of the following is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A) Restlessness
B) Headache
C) Bradycardia and irregular respiration
D) Nausea and vomiting

19. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) should be advised to:

A) Avoid walking and remain immobile
B) Massage the affected limb
C) Use compression stockings and elevate the leg
D) Take high doses of aspirin

20. Which of the following vaccines is given at birth?

A) DPT
B) BCG
C) MMR
D) Hepatitis A


These questions cover a variety of essential nursing topics, including medical-surgical nursing, maternal and child health, pharmacology, and professional ethics. Would you like me to refine or add more to this list?

FMGE Exam: All You Need to Know in 2024 and Beyond

The FMGE exam, or Foreign Medical Graduate Examination, is an essential stepping stone for international medical graduates (IMGs) who wish to practice medicine in India. Conducted by the National Board of Examinations (NBE), this examination assesses the medical knowledge of foreign-trained doctors, ensuring that they meet the standards required to deliver healthcare in the country.

What is FMGE?

The FMGE full form is Foreign Medical Graduate Examination. It is a mandatory exam for all medical professionals who have completed their medical degrees from universities outside India. After passing the FMGE exam, candidates are granted a provisional or permanent registration with the National Medical Commission (NMC), which is required to practice medicine in India.

Importance of FMGE Exam

The FMGE exam holds great significance as it bridges the gap between the medical education received overseas and the practical medical standards in India. It ensures that foreign medical graduates meet the necessary skillset and knowledge before treating patients in Indian hospitals and clinics.

FMGE Exam Date 2024

For those preparing for the FMGE exam date 2024, it is essential to stay updated with the official announcements. The FMGE exam date is announced by the National Board of Examinations (NBE), typically around 2-3 months before the exam takes place. In 2024, the FMGE exam date will be scheduled for specific months, so candidates must frequently check the NBE website for the most accurate and up-to-date information.

FMGE Result 2024

The FMGE result 2024 will be made available a few weeks after the exam date. The results can be checked on the official NBE website, and it’s important to note that the FMGE result is issued in the form of a scorecard. Candidates who successfully pass the exam will be eligible to apply for the FMGE admit card in the following years.

How to Download the FMGE Admit Card

The FMGE admit card is a crucial document for appearing in the FMGE exam. Once you have registered and applied for the exam, you can download the FMGE admit card from the official NBE website. The FMGE admit card contains important details such as your exam date, exam center, and personal information. It is essential to keep the admit card safe and carry it with you to the exam center.

FMGE Result 2025 and Beyond

As we look ahead, the FMGE result 2025 will be crucial for many who are aspiring to work in India after completing their medical education abroad. The format of the exam and result declaration is expected to stay consistent. FMGE result 2025 will follow the same timeline, and candidates will need to keep track of any updates released by NBE.

NBE FMGE: What You Need to Know

The NBE FMGE is a well-structured exam that follows a set pattern, which includes multiple-choice questions (MCQs) that assess the candidate’s medical knowledge and understanding of various subjects. It is vital for candidates to be well-prepared and familiar with the exam format before appearing. Moreover, the NBE is known for its efficient conduct of exams, ensuring fairness and accuracy in results.

Important Dates: FMGE Exam and Admit Card

The FMGE exam date 2025 will be announced by the NBE well in advance. Once you know the FMGE exam date, you will have enough time to prepare thoroughly. It is also essential to keep track of the FMGE admit card 2025 release date. The admit card is typically available a few weeks before the exam, and candidates must download it promptly to avoid any last-minute confusion.

How to Prepare for FMGE Exam

Preparation for the FMGE exam requires strategic planning and dedication. While some candidates might find it easier, others may need additional time and effort. Here’s a breakdown of a few steps that can help in preparation:

  1. Understand the FMGE Syllabus: Start by reviewing the syllabus for the FMGE exam to know which subjects and topics you will be tested on.
  2. Practice with Previous Papers: Solve past FMGE exam papers to familiarize yourself with the question format and time constraints.
  3. Join Online Coaching or Study Groups: You can also sign up for online FMGE preparatory courses or study groups for extra support and guidance.
  4. Stay Updated with Important Announcements: Check the NBE website regularly for updates regarding FMGE exam date, FMGE admit card, and other essential details.

Conclusion

The FMGE exam is a critical examination for medical professionals who have completed their medical degree from foreign universities. Whether you are preparing for the FMGE exam date 2024 or looking ahead to the FMGE exam date 2025, staying informed and prepared is the key to success. With the right resources and commitment, passing the FMGE exam can open doors to a rewarding career in the Indian medical field.

Remember to monitor the official website for the most accurate and up-to-date information regarding the FMGE result, FMGE admit card, and FMGE exam dates. Stay focused on your preparation, and good luck with your exam!

Vancouver Referencing Style: A Complete Guide for Researchers and Students 2025

Introduction

Vancouver referencing style is a widely used citation format in medical and scientific research. It follows a numerical system, making it easy to track sources throughout an academic or professional document. In this guide, we will explore the key aspects of Vancouver referencing, including its structure, citation rules, and examples.

What is Vancouver Referencing Style?

Vancouver referencing is a numerical citation style developed by the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE). It is commonly used in medical, health sciences, and biological research publications. This style is known for its simplicity, as citations are indicated by numbers in the text and correspond to a numbered reference list at the end of the document.

Key Features of Vancouver Referencing

  • Numerical Citation: In-text citations are numbered in the order they appear in the document.
  • Reference List Order: The reference list is arranged in numerical order, not alphabetically.
  • Abbreviated Journal Names: Journal titles are abbreviated according to the National Library of Medicine (NLM) guidelines.
  • Minimal Punctuation: The format is concise, avoiding unnecessary punctuation.

How to Cite Sources in Vancouver Style

1. In-Text Citations

In-text citations in Vancouver style are represented by numbers in square brackets or superscripts:

  • Example: The study shows significant results [1].
  • Example: According to Smith et al.¹, the findings were conclusive.

Numbers should appear in sequential order based on their first mention in the text.

2. Reference List Format

Each reference in the list follows a standard structure. Below are common formats for different source types:

Journal Article

Format: Author(s). Title of the article. Journal Abbreviation Year; Volume(Issue): Page numbers.

Example: Kim EK, Ko KH, Oh KK, et al. Clinical application of the BI-RADS final assessment to breast sonography in conjunction with mammography. AJR Am J Roentgenol 2008; 190:1209.

Book

Format: Author(s). Book title. Edition (if not first). Place of publication: Publisher; Year.

Example: Rang HP, Dale MM, Ritter JM, Moore PK. Pharmacology. 5th ed. Edinburgh: Churchill Livingstone; 2003.

Website

Format: Author(s) (if available). Title of the webpage. Name of website. Year [cited date]; Available from: URL

Example: World Health Organization. Global tuberculosis report 2023. WHO. 2023 [cited 2024 Jan 10]; Available from: https://www.who.int/tb/publications/global_report

Why Use Vancouver Referencing?

  1. Preferred in Medical and Scientific Research: Most medical journals require Vancouver-style citations.
  2. Organized and Clear: The numerical system keeps references easy to follow.
  3. Ensures Credibility: Proper citations enhance academic integrity and prevent plagiarism.

Tips for Using Vancouver Referencing

  • Use citation management tools like EndNote, Mendeley, or Zotero to automate referencing.
  • Follow journal-specific guidelines, as some may have minor variations.
  • Always use official abbreviations for journal names from the NLM Catalog.

Conclusion

Vancouver referencing is a straightforward and efficient citation style, especially in medical and scientific fields. By following its structured approach, researchers and students can present their work with credibility and clarity. Mastering this citation format will not only enhance your academic writing but also ensure compliance with research publication standards.

Vancouver Reference Generator

Vancouver Reference Generator

Generated Vancouver Reference:

NHPC MPH Epidemiology License Examination Model Questions

Section 1: Basic Epidemiological Concepts

  1. Which of the following is NOT an essential component of epidemiology?
    a) Distribution
    b) Causation
    c) Prevention
    d) Treatment
  2. Incidence rate is best defined as:
    a) The total number of new cases in a population at risk over a specific time period
    b) The total number of existing cases in a population
    c) The ratio of diseased to non-diseased individuals
    d) The probability of survival after diagnosis
  3. Prevalence is:
    a) A measure of new cases in a population
    b) A measure of both old and new cases in a population
    c) The mortality rate of a disease
    d) A measure of deaths per population
  4. The epidemiological triad consists of:
    a) Host, agent, environment
    b) Incidence, prevalence, mortality
    c) Disease, risk factor, prevention
    d) Primary, secondary, tertiary prevention
  5. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
    a) Vaccination
    b) Cancer screening
    c) Chemotherapy
    d) Health education

Section 2: Study Designs

  1. Which of the following study designs is best for determining causality?
    a) Cross-sectional study
    b) Case-control study
    c) Randomized controlled trial
    d) Ecological study
  2. A cohort study is characterized by:
    a) Following participants over time based on exposure status
    b) Comparing diseased and non-diseased groups retrospectively
    c) Studying groups at a single point in time
    d) Randomly assigning participants to treatment groups
  3. Which study design is most suitable for rare diseases?
    a) Cohort study
    b) Case-control study
    c) Cross-sectional study
    d) Experimental study
  4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a case-control study?
    a) It is retrospective
    b) It is cost-effective
    c) It provides incidence data
    d) It is useful for rare diseases
  5. The major disadvantage of an ecological study is:
    a) High cost
    b) Time-consuming nature
    c) Ecological fallacy
    d) Ethical concerns

Section 3: Measures of Association and Risk

  1. Relative risk is used in which type of study?
    a) Cohort study
    b) Case-control study
    c) Cross-sectional study
    d) Ecological study
  2. Odds ratio is commonly used in:
    a) Cohort studies
    b) Cross-sectional studies
    c) Case-control studies
    d) Randomized trials
  3. Attributable risk measures:
    a) The proportion of disease due to an exposure
    b) The rate of disease in the population
    c) The survival rate of affected individuals
    d) The error in study findings
  4. If the relative risk (RR) is 1.5, it means:
    a) No association between exposure and disease
    b) Exposure increases disease risk by 50%
    c) Exposure decreases disease risk
    d) The disease is independent of exposure
  5. A confidence interval that includes 1 means:
    a) The association is statistically significant
    b) The association is not statistically significant
    c) There is a strong association
    d) The study is biased

Section 4: Bias and Confounding

  1. Which of the following is a type of selection bias?
    a) Recall bias
    b) Loss to follow-up
    c) Observer bias
    d) Measurement bias
  2. Confounding occurs when:
    a) A third variable distorts the association between exposure and disease
    b) The sample size is too small
    c) The measurement tools are unreliable
    d) There is selection bias
  3. Randomization in clinical trials helps to:
    a) Ensure treatment is effective
    b) Control for confounding variables
    c) Increase bias
    d) Lower cost
  4. Blinding is used to reduce:
    a) Selection bias
    b) Observer bias
    c) Confounding
    d) Incidence rate
  5. Which of the following can reduce recall bias?
    a) Increasing sample size
    b) Using objective measurements
    c) Increasing follow-up time
    d) Randomly assigning exposure groups

Section 5: Public Health Applications

  1. The first step in an outbreak investigation is:
    a) Identify the source
    b) Confirm the existence of an outbreak
    c) Implement control measures
    d) Publish findings
  2. Which measure is commonly used in surveillance?
    a) Incidence rate
    b) Attributable risk
    c) Case-fatality rate
    d) Sensitivity
  3. The best source of national mortality data is:
    a) Census
    b) Hospital records
    c) Vital registration system
    d) Surveillance reports
  4. The sensitivity of a test measures:
    a) The ability to correctly detect disease
    b) The ability to detect non-disease cases
    c) The proportion of false positives
    d) The rate of disease spread
  5. Quarantine is an example of:
    a) Primary prevention
    b) Secondary prevention
    c) Tertiary prevention
    d) None of the above

Answer Key

  1. c
  2. a
  3. b
  4. a
  5. b
  6. c
  7. a
  8. b
  9. c
  10. c
  11. a
  12. c
  13. a
  14. b
  15. b
  16. b
  17. a
  18. b
  19. b
  20. b
  21. b
  22. a
  23. c
  24. a
  25. b

Bihar Nursing Board License Examination Model Questions (30 Questions)

Here are 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) tailored for the Bihar Nursing Board License Examination.


General Nursing & Midwifery (GNM) MCQs

1. Anatomy & Physiology

  1. Which organ is responsible for filtering and purifying blood in the human body?
    a) Liver
    b) Kidney
    c) Heart
    d) Lungs
    Answer: b) Kidney
  2. What is the normal pH range of human blood?
    a) 6.8 – 7.0
    b) 7.35 – 7.45
    c) 7.8 – 8.0
    d) 6.0 – 6.5
    Answer: b) 7.35 – 7.45
  3. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?
    a) Right atrium
    b) Left atrium
    c) Right ventricle
    d) Left ventricle
    Answer: d) Left ventricle
  4. The cranial nerve responsible for vision is:
    a) Olfactory nerve
    b) Optic nerve
    c) Vagus nerve
    d) Facial nerve
    Answer: b) Optic nerve
  5. The longest bone in the human body is:
    a) Humerus
    b) Tibia
    c) Femur
    d) Radius
    Answer: c) Femur

2. Medical-Surgical Nursing

  1. What is the most common symptom of myocardial infarction (heart attack)?
    a) Abdominal pain
    b) Chest pain
    c) Leg swelling
    d) Rash
    Answer: b) Chest pain
  2. Which condition is characterized by a deficiency of insulin?
    a) Hypertension
    b) Diabetes mellitus
    c) Osteoporosis
    d) Hyperthyroidism
    Answer: b) Diabetes mellitus
  3. Which electrolyte imbalance can cause muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias?
    a) Hypokalemia
    b) Hypercalcemia
    c) Hyponatremia
    d) Hypoglycemia
    Answer: a) Hypokalemia
  4. Which drug is commonly used as an anticoagulant?
    a) Insulin
    b) Warfarin
    c) Paracetamol
    d) Digoxin
    Answer: b) Warfarin
  5. The first step in managing an unconscious patient is:
    a) Check for airway obstruction
    b) Start CPR
    c) Give oxygen
    d) Measure blood pressure
    Answer: a) Check for airway obstruction

3. Community Health Nursing

  1. What is the recommended exclusive breastfeeding duration for infants?
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months
    Answer: b) 6 months
  2. What is the primary cause of maternal mortality in India?
    a) Hypertension
    b) Postpartum hemorrhage
    c) Malnutrition
    d) Infection
    Answer: b) Postpartum hemorrhage
  3. What is the incubation period of tuberculosis?
    a) 1-2 weeks
    b) 2-12 weeks
    c) 6-9 months
    d) 1 year
    Answer: b) 2-12 weeks
  4. Which vaccine is given at birth in India?
    a) DPT
    b) BCG
    c) MMR
    d) OPV
    Answer: b) BCG
  5. What is the normal range of hemoglobin in adult females?
    a) 8-10 g/dL
    b) 10-12 g/dL
    c) 12-16 g/dL
    d) 16-20 g/dL
    Answer: c) 12-16 g/dL

4. Obstetrics & Gynecology

  1. What is the average duration of pregnancy?
    a) 28 weeks
    b) 30 weeks
    c) 34 weeks
    d) 40 weeks
    Answer: d) 40 weeks
  2. What is the first sign of pregnancy?
    a) Weight gain
    b) Morning sickness
    c) Missed period
    d) Fetal movements
    Answer: c) Missed period
  3. What is the safest position for a pregnant woman during labor?
    a) Supine
    b) Lithotomy
    c) Left lateral
    d) Prone
    Answer: c) Left lateral
  4. Which hormone maintains pregnancy?
    a) Estrogen
    b) Progesterone
    c) Oxytocin
    d) Prolactin
    Answer: b) Progesterone
  5. Eclampsia is characterized by:
    a) High blood pressure and seizures
    b) Low blood pressure and fainting
    c) Severe nausea and vomiting
    d) Frequent urination
    Answer: a) High blood pressure and seizures

5. Pharmacology & Toxicology

  1. Which drug is used to treat anaphylaxis?
    a) Paracetamol
    b) Epinephrine
    c) Ibuprofen
    d) Diazepam
    Answer: b) Epinephrine
  2. The antidote for morphine overdose is:
    a) Naloxone
    b) Atropine
    c) Vitamin K
    d) Digoxin
    Answer: a) Naloxone
  3. The side effect of aminoglycosides is:
    a) Nephrotoxicity
    b) Hypertension
    c) Hypoglycemia
    d) Constipation
    Answer: a) Nephrotoxicity
  4. Which medication is a bronchodilator?
    a) Metformin
    b) Salbutamol
    c) Ranitidine
    d) Omeprazole
    Answer: b) Salbutamol
  5. What is the recommended route of administration for insulin?
    a) Intravenous
    b) Subcutaneous
    c) Oral
    d) Intramuscular
    Answer: b) Subcutaneous

6. Mental Health Nursing

  1. The most common mental disorder worldwide is:
    a) Schizophrenia
    b) Depression
    c) Bipolar disorder
    d) Phobia
    Answer: b) Depression
  2. Which therapy is most effective for treating phobias?
    a) Cognitive behavioral therapy
    b) Electroconvulsive therapy
    c) Group therapy
    d) Psychoanalysis
    Answer: a) Cognitive behavioral therapy
  3. The drug used to treat schizophrenia is:
    a) Haloperidol
    b) Diazepam
    c) Fluoxetine
    d) Lithium
    Answer: a) Haloperidol
  4. The term ‘psychosis’ refers to:
    a) Memory loss
    b) Loss of contact with reality
    c) Anxiety disorder
    d) Depression
    Answer: b) Loss of contact with reality
  5. Which vitamin deficiency is linked to depression?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin B12
    c) Vitamin D
    d) Vitamin K
    Answer: c) Vitamin D