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25 High Yeild MCQs for BSc Nursing Licensing Examination – Nepal

1. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for the movement of the tongue?

a) Cranial nerve V
b) Cranial nerve VII
c) Cranial nerve IX
d) Cranial nerve XII

2. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents with Kussmaul’s breathing. What is the primary purpose of this type of respiration?

a) Compensate for metabolic alkalosis
b) Compensate for metabolic acidosis
c) Decrease blood oxygen levels
d) Retain carbon dioxide

3. A nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should be avoided?

a) Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees
b) Hyperventilation to maintain a PaCO₂ of 25 mmHg
c) Suctioning the airway frequently
d) Keeping the neck in a neutral position

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with the use of loop diuretics like furosemide?

a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypernatremia
c) Hypokalemia
d) Hypercalcemia

5. A nurse notes a positive Chvostek’s sign in a patient. Which condition does this indicate?

a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hypernatremia
d) Hypermagnesemia

a) 2 IU IV
b) 5 IU IM
c) 10 IU IM
d) 20 IU IV

7. Which of the following is a contraindication for thrombolytic therapy in a patient with acute myocardial infarction?

a) History of peptic ulcer disease
b) Active internal bleeding
c) Hypertension (BP 140/90 mmHg)
d) Age above 65 years

8. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?

a) Influenza vaccine
b) Tetanus toxoid vaccine
c) Hepatitis B vaccine
d) MMR vaccine

9. In nephrotic syndrome, which of the following is the main pathological feature?

a) Hematuria
b) Massive proteinuria
c) Oliguria
d) Increased glomerular filtration rate

10. Which of the following ECG findings is characteristic of hyperkalemia?

a) Prolonged QT interval
b) Peaked T waves
c) ST-segment depression
d) Widened QRS complex

11. A nurse is monitoring a patient on warfarin therapy. Which lab test should be regularly checked?

a) aPTT
b) INR
c) D-dimer
d) Bleeding time

12. What is the first-line drug for the treatment of status epilepticus?

a) Phenytoin
b) Diazepam
c) Carbamazepine
d) Levetiracetam

13. In a patient with septic shock, which of the following is the initial management step?

a) Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics
b) Giving vasopressors
c) Initiating fluid resuscitation
d) Providing corticosteroids

14. A nurse is caring for a postpartum patient with uterine atony. What is the priority nursing intervention?

a) Administering oxytocin
b) Encouraging ambulation
c) Applying fundal massage
d) Inserting a urinary catheter

15. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for magnesium sulfate therapy in preeclampsia?

a) Respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min
b) Blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg
c) Urine output of 40 ml/hr
d) Reflexes graded as 2+

16. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing serotonin syndrome?

a) Administering acetaminophen
b) Providing cooling blankets
c) Giving an SSRI
d) Encouraging caffeine intake

17. Which of the following ABG results indicate uncompensated metabolic acidosis?

a) pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg, HCO₃ 30 mEq/L
b) pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 38 mmHg, HCO₃ 18 mEq/L
c) pH 7.38, PaCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃ 24 mEq/L
d) pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, HCO₃ 28 mEq/L

18. In which condition does a patient experience a paradoxical pulse?

a) Pericardial tamponade
b) Mitral valve stenosis
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Aortic dissection

19. Which medication is given to reverse opioid overdose?

a) Flumazenil
b) Naloxone
c) Atropine
d) Protamine sulfate

20. A 24-year-old woman presents with a painless, firm, mobile breast lump. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Fibroadenoma
b) Breast carcinoma
c) Intraductal papilloma
d) Breast abscess

21. Which class of drugs is most commonly associated with ototoxicity?

a) Beta-blockers
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Proton pump inhibitors
d) Antifungals

22. What is the purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative mother?

a) To prevent Rh incompatibility in future pregnancies
b) To treat existing fetal hemolytic anemia
c) To promote active immunity
d) To increase fetal hemoglobin levels

23. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of left-sided heart failure?

a) Peripheral edema
b) Jugular vein distension
c) Pulmonary congestion
d) Hepatomegaly

24. Which nerve is most likely damaged in a patient presenting with wrist drop?

a) Ulnar nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Median nerve
d) Musculocutaneous nerve

25. A nurse is assessing a patient with Cushing’s syndrome. Which of the following findings is most characteristic?

a) Hypotension
b) Moon face and buffalo hump
c) Weight loss
d) Hyperpigmentation

Answer Key

  1. d) Cranial nerve XII
  2. b) Compensate for metabolic acidosis
  3. c) Suctioning the airway frequently
  4. c) Hypokalemia
  5. b) Hypocalcemia
  6. c) 10 IU IM
  7. b) Active internal bleeding
  8. d) MMR vaccine
  9. b) Massive proteinuria
  10. b) Peaked T waves
  11. b) INR
  12. b) Diazepam
  13. c) Initiating fluid resuscitation
  14. c) Applying fundal massage
  15. a) Respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min
  16. b) Providing cooling blankets
  17. b) pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 38 mmHg, HCO₃ 18 mEq/L
  18. a) Pericardial tamponade
  19. b) Naloxone
  20. a) Fibroadenoma
  21. b) Aminoglycosides
  22. a) To prevent Rh incompatibility in future pregnancies
  23. c) Pulmonary congestion
  24. b) Radial nerve
  25. b) Moon face and buffalo hump

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