Here is TU IOM Teaching Hospital Staff Nurse Model Question (MCQ) – Set 2 for free Practice.

Medical-Surgical Nursing

31. What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?
    a) Aortic aneurysm
    b) Coronary artery thrombosis
    c) Pulmonary embolism
    d) Valvular heart disease
32. Which of the following is a complication of uncontrolled hypertension?
    a) Deep vein thrombosis
    b) Stroke
    c) Tuberculosis
    d) Appendicitis
33. Which of the following is the best position for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
    a) Supine
    b) Semi-Fowler’s
    c) Trendelenburg
    d) Lithotomy
34. The primary goal of fluid resuscitation in burn patients is:
    a) Prevent infection
    b) Maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion
    c) Reduce pain
    d) Improve wound healing
35. Which test is used to diagnose tuberculosis?
    a) Mantoux test
    b) Widal test
    c) Coombs test
    d) ELISA test

Obstetrics & Gynecology Nursing

36. A woman who has had three pregnancies but only two live births is classified as:
    a) G3P3
    b) G3P2
    c) G2P3
    d) G2P2
37. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
    a) Ovary
    b) Fallopian tube
    c) Cervix
    d) Peritoneum
38. A woman in labor suddenly complains of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. What condition should the nurse suspect?
    a) Eclampsia
    b) Uterine rupture
    c) Amniotic fluid embolism
    d) Placental abruption
39. Which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
    a) Uterine atony
    b) Retained placenta
    c) Vaginal laceration
    d) Coagulopathy
40. The first stage of labor begins with:
    a) Full cervical dilation
    b) Onset of true contractions
    c) Delivery of the baby
    d) Delivery of the placenta

Pediatric Nursing

41. The most common congenital heart defect is:
    a) Tetralogy of Fallot
    b) Atrial septal defect
    c) Ventricular septal defect
    d) Coarctation of the aorta
42. What is the normal head circumference of a newborn?
    a) 25-30 cm
    b) 30-35 cm
    c) 35-40 cm
    d) 40-45 cm
43. Which of the following is an early sign of dehydration in infants?
    a) Sunken fontanelle
    b) Decreased urine output
    c) Dry mucous membranes
    d) Increased respiratory rate
44. The most common cause of pneumonia in children under 5 years is:
    a) Bacterial infection
    b) Viral infection
    c) Fungal infection
    d) Parasitic infection
45. Which reflex is normally present in newborns but disappears by 4 months?
    a) Moro reflex
    b) Babinski reflex
    c) Palmar grasp reflex
    d) Tonic neck reflex

Mental Health Nursing

46. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
    a) Encourage deep breathing
    b) Leave them alone until they calm down
    c) Provide caffeine to reduce fatigue
    d) Encourage fast breathing to expel CO₂
47. What is the primary goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?
    a) Promote relaxation
    b) Change negative thought patterns
    c) Increase serotonin levels
    d) Avoid all stressors
48. Which disorder is characterized by repetitive, intrusive thoughts and compulsive behaviors?
    a) Generalized anxiety disorder
    b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
    c) Schizophrenia
    d) Bipolar disorder
49. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is primarily associated with schizophrenia?
    a) Increased dopamine
    b) Decreased serotonin
    c) Increased acetylcholine
    d) Decreased norepinephrine
50. A patient taking lithium for bipolar disorder should be monitored for:
    a) Hyperglycemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Thyroid dysfunction
    d) Hypertension

Community Health Nursing

51. The Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) covers which of the following diseases?
    a) Typhoid
    b) Measles
    c) Malaria
    d) Dengue
52. What is the incubation period of hepatitis B?
    a) 2-6 weeks
    b) 6-10 weeks
    c) 45-180 days
    d) 2-5 years
53. The most common mode of transmission for HIV is:
    a) Airborne
    b) Fecal-oral
    c) Sexual contact
    d) Vector-borne
54. The best way to prevent malaria is:
    a) Taking antibiotics
    b) Using insecticide-treated nets
    c) Wearing thick clothes
    d) Avoiding direct sunlight
55. Which vitamin is essential for preventing night blindness?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin C
    c) Vitamin D
    d) Vitamin K

Pharmacology

56. What is the preferred drug for treating an acute asthma attack?
    a) Montelukast
    b) Salbutamol
    c) Ipratropium
    d) Beclomethasone
57. What is the antidote for paracetamol overdose?
    a) Naloxone
    b) Acetylcysteine
    c) Atropine
    d) Flumazenil
58. Which class of drugs is commonly used to treat hypertension?
    a) Beta-blockers
    b) Antibiotics
    c) Antihistamines
    d) Proton pump inhibitors
59. What is the most common side effect of NSAIDs?
    a) Diarrhea
    b) Gastric ulcer
    c) Hypoglycemia
    d) Bradycardia
60. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
    a) Spironolactone
    b) Hydrochlorothiazide
    c) Furosemide
    d) Amlodipine

Answer Key

31. b) Coronary artery thrombosis
32. b) Stroke
33. b) Semi-Fowler’s
34. b) Maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion
35. a) Mantoux test
36. b) G3P2
37. b) Fallopian tube
38. c) Amniotic fluid embolism
39. a) Uterine atony
40. b) Onset of true contractions
41. c) Ventricular septal defect
42. b) 30-35 cm
43. b) Decreased urine output
44. b) Viral infection
45. a) Moro reflex
46. a) Encourage deep breathing
47. b) Change negative thought patterns
48. b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
49. a) Increased dopamine
50. c) Thyroid dysfunction
51. b) Measles
52. c) 45-180 days
53. c) Sexual contact
54. b) Using insecticide-treated nets
55. a) Vitamin A
56. b) Salbutamol
57. b) Acetylcysteine
58. a) Beta-blockers
59. b) Gastric ulcer
60. c) Furosemide

Here are TU IOM Teaching Hospital Staff Nurse Model Question (MCQ) Top 30 Questions to help you eaasily pass the next examination.

General Nursing & Medical-Surgical Nursing

1. What is the normal range of hemoglobin in adult females?
   a) 8-10 g/dL
   b) 10-12 g/dL
   c) 12-16 g/dL
   d) 14-18 g/dL
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with hyperkalemia?
   a) Hypocalcemia
   b) Hypernatremia
   c) Hyperphosphatemia
   d) Hypomagnesemia
3. Which of the following is the earliest sign of hypoxia?
   a) Cyanosis
   b) Restlessness
   c) Bradycardia
   d) Decreased urine output
4. What is the primary purpose of Fowler’s position?
   a) Reduce back pain
   b) Promote lung expansion
   c) Improve venous return
   d) Prevent pressure ulcers
5. Which nursing action is most appropriate for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?
   a) Administer oral antihistamine
   b) Give IV epinephrine
   c) Apply warm compress
   d) Monitor urine output

Obstetrics & Gynecology Nursing

6. Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection reflex?
   a) Estrogen
   b) Prolactin
   c) Oxytocin
   d) Progesterone
7. A postpartum mother should be advised to report which of the following signs immediately?
   a) Vaginal discharge lasting 4 weeks
   b) Breast engorgement
   c) Sudden heavy vaginal bleeding
   d) Mild abdominal cramping
8. What is the normal duration of a menstrual cycle?
   a) 14-20 days
   b) 21-35 days
   c) 36-42 days
   d) 28-45 days
9. Which of the following is a characteristic sign of pre-eclampsia?
   a) Hyperglycemia
   b) Proteinuria
   c) Hyperbilirubinemia
   d) Leukocytosis
10. The best position for a pregnant woman with hypotension is:
    a) Supine
    b) Left lateral
    c) Right lateral
    d) Trendelenburg

Pediatric Nursing

11. The first vaccine given to a newborn is:
    a) BCG
    b) OPV
    c) DPT
    d) Hepatitis B
12. What is the normal birth weight of a newborn?
    a) 1.5-2.0 kg
    b) 2.5-4.0 kg
    c) 4.5-5.0 kg
    d) 5.0-6.0 kg
13. The most common cause of diarrhea in children is:
    a) Rotavirus
    b) Salmonella
    c) E. coli
    d) Staphylococcus
14. Which condition is characterized by a barking cough in children?
    a) Pneumonia
    b) Croup
    c) Asthma
    d) Bronchitis
15. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is:
    a) 20-30 breaths per minute
    b) 30-60 breaths per minute
    c) 60-80 breaths per minute
    d) 10-20 breaths per minute

Mental Health Nursing

16. The drug of choice for bipolar disorder is:
    a) Lithium
    b) Haloperidol
    c) Fluoxetine
    d) Lorazepam
17. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the best nursing intervention?
    a) Tell them the voices are not real
    b) Encourage them to talk about their feelings
    c) Ignore their hallucinations
    d) Restrain the patient immediately
18. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with depression?
    a) Dopamine
    b) Serotonin
    c) Acetylcholine
    d) GABA
19. The priority nursing intervention for a suicidal patient is:
    a) Encouraging social interactions
    b) Removing harmful objects
    c) Allowing the patient to stay alone for self-reflection
    d) Giving sedatives
20. The main side effect of antipsychotic drugs is:
    a) Hypotension
    b) Extrapyramidal symptoms
    c) Hyperglycemia
    d) Tachycardia

Community Health Nursing

21. The best method to dispose of biomedical waste is:
    a) Open dumping
    b) Incineration
    c) Burying
    d) Recycling
22. ORS is primarily used to treat:
    a) Hypertension
    b) Dehydration
    c) Hyperglycemia
    d) Anemia
23. What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis?
    a) Bloodborne
    b) Airborne
    c) Vector-borne
    d) Fecal-oral
24. The recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding is:
    a) 3 months
    b) 6 months
    c) 9 months
    d) 12 months
25. The first step in conducting a community health assessment is:
    a) Data collection
    b) Implementation
    c) Evaluation
    d) Planning

Pharmacology

26. The antidote for opioid overdose is:
    a) Atropine
    b) Naloxone
    c) Flumazenil
    d) Vitamin K
27. Which of the following drugs is a beta-blocker?
    a) Amlodipine
    b) Metoprolol
    c) Captopril
    d) Furosemide
28. What is the main side effect of loop diuretics?
    a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Hypernatremia
    d) Hyperglycemia
29. Insulin should be administered:
    a) Intramuscularly
    b) Intravenously
    c) Subcutaneously
    d) Orally
30. Warfarin is an example of:
    a) Antihypertensive
    b) Anticoagulant
    c) Antibiotic
    d) Analgesic

Answer Key

1. c) 12-16 g/dL
2. c) Hyperphosphatemia
3. b) Restlessness
4. b) Promote lung expansion
5. b) Give IV epinephrine
6. c) Oxytocin
7. c) Sudden heavy vaginal bleeding
8. b) 21-35 days
9. b) Proteinuria
10. b) Left lateral
11. a) BCG
12. b) 2.5-4.0 kg
13. a) Rotavirus
14. b) Croup
15. b) 30-60 breaths per minute
16. a) Lithium
17. b) Encourage them to talk about their feelings
18. b) Serotonin
19. b) Removing harmful objects
20. b) Extrapyramidal symptoms
21. b) Incineration
22. b) Dehydration
23. b) Airborne
24. b) 6 months
25. a) Data collection
26. b) Naloxone
27. b) Metoprolol
28. b) Hypokalemia
29. c) Subcutaneously
30. b) Anticoagulant

Here are 20 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) designed for the Nepal Nursing Council (NNC) License Examination 2081.

1. Which vitamin deficiency leads to pernicious anemia?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D

2. What is the normal range of hemoglobin in adult females?

A) 9-11 g/dL
B) 10-12 g/dL
C) 12-16 g/dL
D) 14-18 g/dL

3. What is the universal precaution to prevent hospital-acquired infections?

A) Wearing gloves only
B) Hand hygiene practices
C) Using antibiotics for all patients
D) Keeping patients in isolation

4. The Apgar score is used to assess which of the following?

A) Fetal heart rate
B) Newborn’s adaptation to extrauterine life
C) Maternal blood pressure
D) Placental function

5. What is the main function of insulin in the body?

A) To break down fats
B) To lower blood sugar levels
C) To increase blood pressure
D) To digest proteins

6. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration in an infant?

A) Increased urination
B) Bulging fontanelle
C) Sunken eyes and dry mouth
D) Excessive saliva production

7. Which drug is used as the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?

A) Paracetamol
B) Epinephrine
C) Ibuprofen
D) Hydrocortisone

8. What is the primary mode of transmission of hepatitis B virus?

A) Airborne droplets
B) Contaminated food and water
C) Blood and body fluids
D) Vector-borne transmission

9. What is the recommended intramuscular (IM) injection site for infants?

A) Deltoid muscle
B) Ventrogluteal muscle
C) Vastus lateralis muscle
D) Dorsogluteal muscle

10. A patient with hypokalemia is likely to experience which symptom?

A) Hyperreflexia
B) Muscle weakness
C) Hypertension
D) Decreased urine output

11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hypoglycemia?

A) Sweating
B) Confusion
C) Bradycardia
D) Tremors

12. What is the normal respiratory rate of a newborn?

A) 10-20 breaths per minute
B) 20-30 breaths per minute
C) 30-60 breaths per minute
D) 60-80 breaths per minute

13. What does a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3 indicate?

A) Normal consciousness
B) Moderate brain injury
C) Deep coma or brain death
D) Mild confusion

14. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with kidney failure?

A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypokalemia

15. What is the normal pH range of arterial blood?

A) 6.8-7.2
B) 7.35-7.45
C) 7.5-8.0
D) 8.0-8.5

16. Which of the following best describes informed consent?

A) A doctor making decisions for the patient
B) The patient agreeing to a procedure without explanation
C) The patient’s voluntary agreement after receiving complete information
D) A family member signing the consent without the patient’s knowledge

17. A nurse suspects a patient has tuberculosis (TB). What is the best initial diagnostic test?

A) Chest X-ray
B) Sputum examination for acid-fast bacilli (AFB)
C) Tuberculin skin test
D) Complete blood count (CBC)

18. Which of the following is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A) Restlessness
B) Headache
C) Bradycardia and irregular respiration
D) Nausea and vomiting

19. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) should be advised to:

A) Avoid walking and remain immobile
B) Massage the affected limb
C) Use compression stockings and elevate the leg
D) Take high doses of aspirin

20. Which of the following vaccines is given at birth?

A) DPT
B) BCG
C) MMR
D) Hepatitis A

These questions cover a variety of essential nursing topics, including medical-surgical nursing, maternal and child health, pharmacology, and professional ethics. Would you like me to refine or add more to this list?

Introduction

Vancouver referencing style is a widely used citation format in medical and scientific research. It follows a numerical system, making it easy to track sources throughout an academic or professional document. In this guide, we will explore the key aspects of Vancouver referencing, including its structure, citation rules, and examples.

What is Vancouver Referencing Style?

Vancouver referencing is a numerical citation style developed by the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE). It is commonly used in medical, health sciences, and biological research publications. This style is known for its simplicity, as citations are indicated by numbers in the text and correspond to a numbered reference list at the end of the document.

Key Features of Vancouver Referencing

• Numerical Citation: In-text citations are numbered in the order they appear in the document.
• Reference List Order: The reference list is arranged in numerical order, not alphabetically.
• Abbreviated Journal Names: Journal titles are abbreviated according to the National Library of Medicine (NLM) guidelines.
• Minimal Punctuation: The format is concise, avoiding unnecessary punctuation.

How to Cite Sources in Vancouver Style

1. In-Text Citations

In-text citations in Vancouver style are represented by numbers in square brackets or superscripts:

• Example: The study shows significant results [1].
• Example: According to Smith et al.¹, the findings were conclusive.

Numbers should appear in sequential order based on their first mention in the text.

2. Reference List Format

Each reference in the list follows a standard structure. Below are common formats for different source types:

Journal Article

Format: Author(s). Title of the article. Journal Abbreviation Year; Volume(Issue): Page numbers.

Example: Kim EK, Ko KH, Oh KK, et al. Clinical application of the BI-RADS final assessment to breast sonography in conjunction with mammography. AJR Am J Roentgenol 2008; 190:1209.

Book

Format: Author(s). Book title. Edition (if not first). Place of publication: Publisher; Year.

Example: Rang HP, Dale MM, Ritter JM, Moore PK. Pharmacology. 5th ed. Edinburgh: Churchill Livingstone; 2003.

Website

Format: Author(s) (if available). Title of the webpage. Name of website. Year [cited date]; Available from: URL

Example: World Health Organization. Global tuberculosis report 2023. WHO. 2023 [cited 2024 Jan 10]; Available from: https://www.who.int/tb/publications/global_report

Why Use Vancouver Referencing?

1. Preferred in Medical and Scientific Research: Most medical journals require Vancouver-style citations.
2. Organized and Clear: The numerical system keeps references easy to follow.
3. Ensures Credibility: Proper citations enhance academic integrity and prevent plagiarism.

Tips for Using Vancouver Referencing

• Use citation management tools like EndNote, Mendeley, or Zotero to automate referencing.
• Follow journal-specific guidelines, as some may have minor variations.
• Always use official abbreviations for journal names from the NLM Catalog.

Conclusion

Vancouver referencing is a straightforward and efficient citation style, especially in medical and scientific fields. By following its structured approach, researchers and students can present their work with credibility and clarity. Mastering this citation format will not only enhance your academic writing but also ensure compliance with research publication standards.