TU IOM Teaching Hospital Staff Nurse Model Question (MCQ) – Set 2

Here is TU IOM Teaching Hospital Staff Nurse Model Question (MCQ) – Set 2 for free Practice.

Medical-Surgical Nursing

31. What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?
    a) Aortic aneurysm
    b) Coronary artery thrombosis
    c) Pulmonary embolism
    d) Valvular heart disease
32. Which of the following is a complication of uncontrolled hypertension?
    a) Deep vein thrombosis
    b) Stroke
    c) Tuberculosis
    d) Appendicitis
33. Which of the following is the best position for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
    a) Supine
    b) Semi-Fowler’s
    c) Trendelenburg
    d) Lithotomy
34. The primary goal of fluid resuscitation in burn patients is:
    a) Prevent infection
    b) Maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion
    c) Reduce pain
    d) Improve wound healing
35. Which test is used to diagnose tuberculosis?
    a) Mantoux test
    b) Widal test
    c) Coombs test
    d) ELISA test

Obstetrics & Gynecology Nursing

36. A woman who has had three pregnancies but only two live births is classified as:
    a) G3P3
    b) G3P2
    c) G2P3
    d) G2P2
37. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
    a) Ovary
    b) Fallopian tube
    c) Cervix
    d) Peritoneum
38. A woman in labor suddenly complains of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. What condition should the nurse suspect?
    a) Eclampsia
    b) Uterine rupture
    c) Amniotic fluid embolism
    d) Placental abruption
39. Which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
    a) Uterine atony
    b) Retained placenta
    c) Vaginal laceration
    d) Coagulopathy
40. The first stage of labor begins with:
    a) Full cervical dilation
    b) Onset of true contractions
    c) Delivery of the baby
    d) Delivery of the placenta

Pediatric Nursing

41. The most common congenital heart defect is:
    a) Tetralogy of Fallot
    b) Atrial septal defect
    c) Ventricular septal defect
    d) Coarctation of the aorta
42. What is the normal head circumference of a newborn?
    a) 25-30 cm
    b) 30-35 cm
    c) 35-40 cm
    d) 40-45 cm
43. Which of the following is an early sign of dehydration in infants?
    a) Sunken fontanelle
    b) Decreased urine output
    c) Dry mucous membranes
    d) Increased respiratory rate
44. The most common cause of pneumonia in children under 5 years is:
    a) Bacterial infection
    b) Viral infection
    c) Fungal infection
    d) Parasitic infection
45. Which reflex is normally present in newborns but disappears by 4 months?
    a) Moro reflex
    b) Babinski reflex
    c) Palmar grasp reflex
    d) Tonic neck reflex

Mental Health Nursing

46. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
    a) Encourage deep breathing
    b) Leave them alone until they calm down
    c) Provide caffeine to reduce fatigue
    d) Encourage fast breathing to expel CO₂
47. What is the primary goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?
    a) Promote relaxation
    b) Change negative thought patterns
    c) Increase serotonin levels
    d) Avoid all stressors
48. Which disorder is characterized by repetitive, intrusive thoughts and compulsive behaviors?
    a) Generalized anxiety disorder
    b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
    c) Schizophrenia
    d) Bipolar disorder
49. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is primarily associated with schizophrenia?
    a) Increased dopamine
    b) Decreased serotonin
    c) Increased acetylcholine
    d) Decreased norepinephrine
50. A patient taking lithium for bipolar disorder should be monitored for:
    a) Hyperglycemia
    b) Hypokalemia
    c) Thyroid dysfunction
    d) Hypertension

Community Health Nursing

51. The Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) covers which of the following diseases?
    a) Typhoid
    b) Measles
    c) Malaria
    d) Dengue
52. What is the incubation period of hepatitis B?
    a) 2-6 weeks
    b) 6-10 weeks
    c) 45-180 days
    d) 2-5 years
53. The most common mode of transmission for HIV is:
    a) Airborne
    b) Fecal-oral
    c) Sexual contact
    d) Vector-borne
54. The best way to prevent malaria is:
    a) Taking antibiotics
    b) Using insecticide-treated nets
    c) Wearing thick clothes
    d) Avoiding direct sunlight
55. Which vitamin is essential for preventing night blindness?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Vitamin C
    c) Vitamin D
    d) Vitamin K

Pharmacology

56. What is the preferred drug for treating an acute asthma attack?
    a) Montelukast
    b) Salbutamol
    c) Ipratropium
    d) Beclomethasone
57. What is the antidote for paracetamol overdose?
    a) Naloxone
    b) Acetylcysteine
    c) Atropine
    d) Flumazenil
58. Which class of drugs is commonly used to treat hypertension?
    a) Beta-blockers
    b) Antibiotics
    c) Antihistamines
    d) Proton pump inhibitors
59. What is the most common side effect of NSAIDs?
    a) Diarrhea
    b) Gastric ulcer
    c) Hypoglycemia
    d) Bradycardia
60. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
    a) Spironolactone
    b) Hydrochlorothiazide
    c) Furosemide
    d) Amlodipine

Answer Key

31. b) Coronary artery thrombosis
32. b) Stroke
33. b) Semi-Fowler’s
34. b) Maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion
35. a) Mantoux test
36. b) G3P2
37. b) Fallopian tube
38. c) Amniotic fluid embolism
39. a) Uterine atony
40. b) Onset of true contractions
41. c) Ventricular septal defect
42. b) 30-35 cm
43. b) Decreased urine output
44. b) Viral infection
45. a) Moro reflex
46. a) Encourage deep breathing
47. b) Change negative thought patterns
48. b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
49. a) Increased dopamine
50. c) Thyroid dysfunction
51. b) Measles
52. c) 45-180 days
53. c) Sexual contact
54. b) Using insecticide-treated nets
55. a) Vitamin A
56. b) Salbutamol
57. b) Acetylcysteine
58. a) Beta-blockers
59. b) Gastric ulcer
60. c) Furosemide