Below is a set of 130 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) organized by subject, following the distribution indicated in your table. These are designed for practice in the style of the NMCLE (Nepal Medical Council Licensing Examination). Each question has one best answer.
Anatomy (5 Questions)
- The femoral nerve primarily innervates which of the following muscle groups?
A. Medial thigh muscles
B. Anterior thigh muscles
C. Posterior thigh muscles
D. Lateral thigh muscles
E. Gluteal muscles - The epiploic foramen (of Winslow) connects which two spaces?
A. Lesser sac and greater sac
B. Greater sac and rectouterine pouch
C. Omental bursa and subhepatic space
D. Subphrenic space and lesser sac
E. Paracolic gutter and lesser sac - Which of the following structures passes through the carpal tunnel?
A. Flexor carpi ulnaris tendon
B. Palmaris longus tendon
C. Median nerve
D. Ulnar nerve
E. Radial artery - In males, the inguinal canal transmits the:
A. Round ligament of the uterus
B. Femoral artery
C. Testicular artery and vein
D. Inferior epigastric artery
E. Pudendal nerve - The boundary between the body and root of the tongue is marked by the:
A. Filiform papillae
B. Fungiform papillae
C. Circumvallate papillae
D. Terminal sulcus
E. Lingual frenulum
Physiology (5 Questions)
- In a normal ECG, the P wave represents:
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Atrial repolarization
D. Ventricular repolarization
E. SA node discharge - Under normal resting conditions, the primary regulator of respiration is:
A. Arterial PO₂
B. Arterial PCO₂
C. Arterial pH due to metabolic acids
D. Blood pressure
E. Body temperature - Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
A. Aldosterone
B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
D. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
E. Cortisol - The absolute refractory period in a nerve action potential is due to:
A. Closure of potassium channels
B. Inactivation of sodium channels
C. Activation of chloride channels
D. Hyperpolarization of the membrane
E. Increased sodium permeability - Which of the following statements about cardiac output is true?
A. Cardiac output is independent of heart rate
B. Cardiac output = Stroke Volume × Heart Rate
C. Cardiac output is always constant
D. Cardiac output decreases with exercise
E. Cardiac output is highest when standing upright
Pharmacology (4 Questions)
- Which of the following drugs is a non-selective beta-blocker?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Propranolol
D. Bisoprolol
E. Nebivolol - The antidote for opioid overdose is:
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Atropine
E. Pralidoxime - Which antibiotic is classified as a glycopeptide?
A. Vancomycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Azithromycin
E. Ceftriaxone - Which class of antibiotics is commonly associated with ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?
A. Penicillins
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Macrolides
D. Tetracyclines
E. Fluoroquinolones
Biochemistry (7 Questions)
- The end product of purine metabolism in humans is:
A. Urea
B. Uric acid
C. Ammonia
D. Creatinine
E. Xanthine - Which enzyme is deficient in Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
A. Tyrosinase
B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Homogentisic acid oxidase
D. Dihydropteridine reductase
E. Tyrosine aminotransferase - In glycolysis, the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is:
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
C. Aldolase
D. Enolase
E. Pyruvate kinase - Which lipoprotein is considered “good” cholesterol because it helps remove excess cholesterol from tissues?
A. Chylomicrons
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. HDL
E. IDL - The rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis is:
A. HMG-CoA reductase
B. HMG-CoA lyase
C. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
D. Mevalonate kinase
E. Squalene synthase - Vitamin K is required for the gamma-carboxylation of which clotting factors?
A. Factors I, II, V, X
B. Factors II, VII, IX, X
C. Factors VIII, IX, X, XI
D. Factors IX, X, XI, XII
E. Factors II, V, VII, IX - A deficiency of which vitamin leads to scurvy?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B₁ (Thiamine)
C. Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin K
Pathology (7 Questions)
- “Nutmeg liver” is typically associated with:
A. Alcoholic cirrhosis
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
E. Hemochromatosis - Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene?
A. HER2
B. RAS
C. p53
D. BCR-ABL
E. RET - Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of:
A. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Leukemoid reaction
E. Infectious mononucleosis - Which hypersensitivity reaction is primarily mediated by IgE antibodies?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V - Which of the following best describes apoptosis?
A. Pathologic cell death with inflammatory response
B. Pathologic cell death without inflammatory response
C. Programmed cell death without inflammatory response
D. Uncontrolled cell proliferation
E. Necrosis with neutrophilic infiltration - In granulomatous inflammation, which cell type is most characteristic?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Epithelioid histiocytes (macrophages)
E. Plasma cells - Auer rods are commonly seen in:
A. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)
C. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
D. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
E. Hodgkin lymphoma
Microbiology (4 Questions)
- The most common cause of urinary tract infections is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Proteus mirabilis - A Gram-positive bacterium that forms spores and causes pseudomembranous colitis is:
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium tetani
E. Bacillus cereus - The Mantoux test (PPD test) is used for the diagnosis of:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Tuberculosis
C. Syphilis
D. Diphtheria
E. Gonorrhea - Negri bodies are associated with which viral infection?
A. Rabies
B. Poliovirus
C. Influenza
D. Herpes simplex
E. HIV
Forensic Medicine (5 Questions)
- The most common pattern of fingerprint is:
A. Arch
B. Whorl
C. Loop
D. Composite
E. Accidental - “Hanging” typically refers to death caused by:
A. Strangulation by ligature with the body lying flat
B. Throttling by hand
C. Constriction of the neck by a ligature with the body suspended
D. Suffocation by pillow
E. Drowning in water - The “Pugilistic attitude” in a burned body is due to:
A. Postmortem artifact caused by heat-induced muscle contraction
B. Rigor mortis
C. Decomposition
D. Defensive posture during burning
E. Heat stroke - The greenish discoloration of a bruise is primarily due to:
A. Bilirubin
B. Biliverdin
C. Hematin
D. Hemosiderin
E. Urobilin - “Marbling” in a decomposing body refers to:
A. Marbled appearance on bones
B. Discoloration of nails
C. Greenish discoloration of the abdomen
D. Vein pattern on the skin due to hemolysis
E. Swelling of the face and neck
Community Medicine (10 Questions)
- The best indicator of the overall health status of a community is often considered to be:
A. Infant mortality rate
B. Maternal mortality rate
C. Crude death rate
D. Life expectancy
E. Per capita income - Which study design is best for investigating rare diseases?
A. Case-control study
B. Cohort study
C. Cross-sectional study
D. Randomized controlled trial
E. Ecological study - The concept of “herd immunity” is most relevant to:
A. Non-communicable diseases
B. Vaccine-preventable communicable diseases
C. Genetic disorders
D. Occupational diseases
E. Nutritional deficiencies - In epidemiology, “incidence” refers to:
A. Total number of existing cases of a disease
B. Number of new cases in a given time period
C. Mortality rate from a disease
D. Ratio of sick to well individuals
E. Prevalence in a specific population - The most sensitive indicator of recent malaria transmission in a community is:
A. Spleen rate
B. Parasite rate
C. Infant parasite rate
D. Annual Parasite Incidence (API)
E. Slide positivity rate - “DALY” stands for:
A. Disease Adjusted Life Year
B. Disability Affected Life Year
C. Disability-Adjusted Life Year
D. Disease-Associated Life Year
E. Disturbed Activity Life Year - Which of the following is NOT part of the “three delays” model in maternal health?
A. Delay in deciding to seek care
B. Delay in reaching a health facility
C. Delay in receiving adequate care at the facility
D. Delay in obtaining family planning services
E. All of the above are part of the model - The best method to assess the severity of acute malnutrition in a community is:
A. Weight for height (wasting)
B. Height for age (stunting)
C. Weight for age (underweight)
D. Mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC)
E. Body mass index (BMI) - Primary prevention of disease includes:
A. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment
B. Limitation of disability
C. Rehabilitation
D. Health promotion and specific protection
E. Hospice care - A measure of dispersion that is the square root of the variance is the:
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Standard deviation
E. Range
Medicine (13 Questions)
- The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Legionella pneumophila
E. Klebsiella pneumoniae - A 55-year-old chronic alcoholic presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Korsakoff psychosis
B. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
C. Hepatic encephalopathy
D. Central pontine myelinolysis
E. Subdural hematoma - The drug of choice for an acute migraine attack is:
A. Propranolol
B. Amitriptyline
C. Sumatriptan
D. Topiramate
E. Verapamil - A key finding in diabetes insipidus is:
A. Low serum sodium
B. Low serum osmolality
C. High urine osmolality
D. High serum osmolality
E. Hypoglycemia - In rheumatoid arthritis, the most specific antibody is:
A. Rheumatoid factor
B. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP)
C. Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
D. Anti-double-stranded DNA
E. Anti-smooth muscle antibody - The triad of hemolytic anemia, jaundice, and splenomegaly is commonly seen in:
A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Thalassemia
C. G6PD deficiency
D. Sickle cell anemia
E. Autoimmune hemolysis - A patient with Addison’s disease is likely to have:
A. Hypertension and hypokalemia
B. Hypotension and hyperkalemia
C. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia
D. Low ACTH levels
E. Hyperglycemia - The most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is:
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Esophageal varices
C. Mallory-Weiss tear
D. Gastric cancer
E. Gastritis - A “butterfly rash” on the face is characteristic of:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Psoriasis
D. Dermatomyositis
E. Pemphigus vulgaris - A characteristic feature of Parkinson’s disease is:
A. Hemiballismus
B. Athetosis
C. Intention tremor
D. Resting tremor
E. Chorea - The most common type of shock in sepsis is:
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Obstructive shock
D. Distributive shock
E. Neurogenic shock - In infective endocarditis, Janeway lesions are described as:
A. Painful nodules on the fingertips
B. Painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles
C. Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers
D. Tender nodules in the pulp of fingers
E. Splinter hemorrhages under the nails - The classic triad of meningitis includes:
A. Fever, rash, photophobia
B. Headache, seizures, vomiting
C. Fever, headache, nuchal rigidity
D. Altered sensorium, fever, bradycardia
E. Vomiting, diarrhea, shock
Surgery (13 Questions)
- The most common cause of an acute abdomen requiring surgery is:
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Intestinal obstruction - During thyroid surgery, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is at greatest risk when ligating the:
A. Superior thyroid artery
B. Inferior thyroid artery
C. External carotid artery
D. Middle thyroid vein
E. Thyroidea ima artery - A patient presents with a painless breast lump. The most appropriate initial investigation is:
A. Mammography
B. Ultrasound of the breast
C. Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)
D. Core needle biopsy
E. MRI of the breast - Which hernia has the highest risk of strangulation?
A. Direct inguinal hernia
B. Indirect inguinal hernia
C. Femoral hernia
D. Epigastric hernia
E. Umbilical hernia - The preferred incision for an open (traditional) appendectomy is the:
A. Midline laparotomy
B. Lanz incision
C. Paramedian incision
D. Kocher’s incision
E. Pfannenstiel incision - According to the Parkland formula for burn resuscitation, the fluid requirement in the first 24 hours is:
A. 2 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA
B. 4 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA
C. 6 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA
D. 8 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA
E. 10 ml × body weight (kg) × %TBSA - Which of the following is NOT typically a feature of intestinal obstruction?
A. Colicky abdominal pain
B. Absolute constipation
C. Vomiting
D. Abdominal distension
E. Hematemesis - The best diagnostic test for suspected choledocholithiasis (CBD stone) is:
A. Ultrasound of the abdomen
B. CT scan of the abdomen
C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
D. MRCP (Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography)
E. HIDA scan - In trauma care, the “FAST” scan stands for:
A. Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma
B. Focused Assessment with Scanning Technique
C. Focused Analysis with Sonographic Test
D. Fast Abdominal Sonography in Trauma
E. Full Abdominal Sonography for Trauma - The most common benign tumor of the liver is:
A. Hepatic adenoma
B. Focal nodular hyperplasia
C. Hemangioma
D. Cholangioma
E. Hepatocellular carcinoma - In the evaluation of varicose veins, the Trendelenburg test assesses:
A. Competency of perforators
B. Competency of the saphenofemoral junction
C. Deep vein patency
D. Direction of venous blood flow
E. Lymphatic drainage - Courvoisier’s sign (palpable non-tender gallbladder) is classically associated with:
A. Gallbladder carcinoma
B. Pancreatic head carcinoma
C. Choledocholithiasis
D. Cholangiocarcinoma
E. Acute cholecystitis - Perforation of a duodenal ulcer typically presents with:
A. Left iliac fossa pain
B. Right iliac fossa pain
C. Sudden onset of severe epigastric pain
D. Gradual onset of periumbilical pain
E. Chronic back pain
Gynecology & Obstetrics (12 Questions)
- Which hormone is detected by standard home pregnancy tests?
A. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
B. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
D. Estrogen
E. Progesterone - The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is:
A. Retained placental fragments
B. Uterine atony
C. Uterine inversion
D. Genital tract lacerations
E. Coagulopathy - A Pap smear is primarily used to detect:
A. Endometrial cancer
B. Ovarian cancer
C. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
D. Vaginal infections
E. Breast cancer - The normal duration of the puerperium is approximately:
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 6 weeks
E. 8 weeks - The drug of choice for controlling eclamptic seizures is:
A. Diazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Hydralazine
E. Labetalol - Which pelvic shape is most commonly associated with obstructed labor?
A. Gynecoid
B. Android
C. Anthropoid
D. Platypelloid
E. Mixed - Clomiphene citrate helps in fertility by:
A. Suppressing FSH release
B. Stimulating LH surge directly
C. Blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus
D. Increasing prolactin secretion
E. Acting as an estrogen agonist in the ovary - A 28-year-old pregnant woman at 12 weeks presents with severe vomiting, weight loss, and dehydration. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
B. Acute gastritis
C. Cholecystitis
D. Pancreatitis
E. Preeclampsia - Which of the following is a tocolytic agent?
A. Oxytocin
B. Ergometrine
C. Terbutaline
D. Misoprostol
E. Dinoprostone - The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is the:
A. Ampulla of the fallopian tube
B. Isthmus of the fallopian tube
C. Fimbrial end of the tube
D. Ovary
E. Cervix - A 25-year-old woman has a painless ulcer on the vulva. The most likely cause is:
A. Herpes genitalis
B. Chancroid
C. Syphilis
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
E. Granuloma inguinale - The Bishop score is used to assess:
A. Risk of eclampsia
B. Fetal lung maturity
C. Cervical favorability for induction of labor
D. Pelvic adequacy
E. Fetal distress
Pediatrics (10 Questions)
- The most common cause of pneumonia in neonates is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Group B Streptococci
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Chlamydia pneumoniae - A child with “whooping cough” is most likely infected with:
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Bordetella pertussis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. Streptococcus pyogenes - The first tooth to erupt in most children is the:
A. Upper central incisor
B. Lower central incisor
C. Upper lateral incisor
D. Lower lateral incisor
E. First molar - Koplik spots are pathognomonic for:
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Chickenpox
D. Scarlet fever
E. Mumps - In pediatric practice, the APGAR score is routinely assessed at:
A. 1 and 5 minutes after birth
B. 5 and 10 minutes after birth
C. 10 and 15 minutes after birth
D. 15 and 20 minutes after birth
E. 1, 5, and 10 minutes after birth - The recommended dose of Vitamin A for a child with measles (6–11 months) is:
A. 50,000 IU
B. 100,000 IU
C. 150,000 IU
D. 200,000 IU
E. 250,000 IU - A neonate with excessive drooling and choking on feeds may have:
A. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
B. Tracheoesophageal fistula
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Duodenal atresia
E. Hirschsprung’s disease - The most common cause of acute gastroenteritis in children worldwide is:
A. Rotavirus
B. Norovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Astrovirus
E. Escherichia coli - A “boot-shaped” heart on chest X-ray is characteristic of:
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Tetralogy of Fallot
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
E. Coarctation of the aorta - The most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis is:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Group B Streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Anesthesia (8 Questions)
- Malignant hyperthermia is most commonly triggered by:
A. Propofol
B. Thiopental
C. Halothane
D. Ketamine
E. Nitrous oxide - The definitive treatment for malignant hyperthermia is:
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Succinylcholine
C. Atropine
D. Bromocriptine
E. Naloxone - Which of the following is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
A. Vecuronium
B. Rocuronium
C. Atracurium
D. Succinylcholine
E. Pancuronium - Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalational anesthetic is defined as:
A. The alveolar concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients
B. The alveolar concentration causing apnea in 50% of patients
C. The alveolar concentration producing sedation in 100% of patients
D. The alveolar concentration ensuring analgesia in 50% of patients
E. The alveolar concentration lethal to 50% of patients - The color code for a nitrous oxide cylinder is:
A. Black body, white shoulder
B. Blue body
C. Grey body
D. Green body
E. Brown body - An absolute contraindication for spinal anesthesia is:
A. Hypotension
B. Severe hypovolemia
C. Anxiety
D. Local skin infection at the puncture site
E. Mild coagulopathy - Which intravenous anesthetic agent has antiemetic properties?
A. Ketamine
B. Thiopental
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate
E. Midazolam - The recommended patient position for spinal anesthesia is:
A. Prone position
B. Supine position
C. Lateral decubitus position with knees flexed
D. Lithotomy position
E. Trendelenburg position
Orthopedics (6 Questions)
- The most common site of fracture in osteoporosis is:
A. Femoral shaft
B. Surgical neck of humerus
C. Distal radius (Colles’ fracture)
D. Vertebral compression fractures
E. Tibial shaft - A 65-year-old with knee pain, crepitus, and joint space narrowing on X-ray likely has:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Gout
D. Septic arthritis
E. Osteomyelitis - A child presents with a painless limp and limited abduction of the hip. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)
B. Perthes disease
C. Septic arthritis
D. Transient synovitis
E. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis - “Tennis elbow” is also known as:
A. Lateral epicondylitis
B. Medial epicondylitis
C. Olecranon bursitis
D. Radial tunnel syndrome
E. Ulnar collateral ligament injury - A fracture with multiple fragments is referred to as a:
A. Greenstick fracture
B. Comminuted fracture
C. Spiral fracture
D. Transverse fracture
E. Compression fracture - The definitive investigation for a meniscal injury of the knee is:
A. X-ray of the knee
B. MRI of the knee
C. Arthrography
D. Ultrasound
E. CT scan
Ophthalmology (5 Questions)
- The most common cause of blindness worldwide is:
A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Macular degeneration
D. Diabetic retinopathy
E. Trachoma - Absence of the red reflex on examination may indicate:
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Glaucoma
D. Uveitis
E. Myopia - In primary open-angle glaucoma, the intraocular pressure is typically:
A. Low or normal
B. Elevated
C. Fluctuating between high and low
D. Always extremely high
E. Unaffected - A 70-year-old with progressive loss of central vision most likely has:
A. Glaucoma
B. Diabetic retinopathy
C. Age-related macular degeneration
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
E. Retinal detachment - The classic triad of congenital glaucoma includes:
A. Tearing, photophobia, blepharospasm
B. Proptosis, chemosis, diplopia
C. Redness, discharge, itching
D. Eye pain, headache, vomiting
E. Floaters, flashing lights, vision loss
ENT (6 Questions)
- The most common cause of acute otitis media in children is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Proteus mirabilis
E. Escherichia coli - A 30-year-old with unilateral nasal obstruction and recurrent epistaxis likely has:
A. Nasal polyp
B. Deviated nasal septum
C. Inverted papilloma
D. Allergic rhinitis
E. Rhinoscleroma - The Rinne test compares:
A. Air conduction (AC) to bone conduction (BC) in the same ear
B. Bone conduction in both ears
C. Air conduction in both ears
D. Air conduction to sensorineural conduction
E. Bone conduction to sensorineural conduction - The voice quality in bilateral vocal cord paralysis is typically:
A. Aphonic
B. Normal
C. Strained and weak
D. Deep and resonant
E. Loud and high-pitched - The organism most commonly responsible for malignant otitis externa is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Escherichia coli
E. Proteus vulgaris - The investigation of choice for suspected cholesteatoma is:
A. Pure tone audiometry
B. CT scan of the temporal bone
C. MRI of the brain
D. Tympanometry
E. Ultrasound of the mastoid
Dermatology (3 Questions)
- A 10-year-old child with honey-colored crusted lesions around the mouth most likely has:
A. Impetigo
B. Erysipelas
C. Psoriasis
D. Tinea corporis
E. Contact dermatitis - The Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding on scale removal) is associated with:
A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Eczema
E. Scabies - The drug of choice for scabies is:
A. Permethrin cream
B. Benzoyl peroxide
C. Acyclovir ointment
D. Hydrocortisone cream
E. Salicylic acid
Dentistry (2 Questions)
- The most common cause of tooth loss in adults is:
A. Dental caries
B. Gingivitis
C. Periodontitis
D. Trauma
E. Malocclusion - Dental fluorosis is caused by:
A. Excess fluoride ingestion during tooth development
B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. Excess calcium intake
D. Poor oral hygiene
E. High sugar diet
Psychiatry (2 Questions)
- A false, fixed belief not in keeping with the patient’s cultural background is known as a:
A. Hallucination
B. Delusion
C. Illusion
D. Overvalued idea
E. Confabulation - Lithium therapy requires regular monitoring of:
A. Blood glucose levels
B. Thyroid function and serum lithium levels
C. Liver function tests
D. Platelet count
E. Coagulation profile
Additional 3 Questions (to reach 130 total)
Because the table’s row-by-row sum reaches 127, here are 3 extra Medicine questions to make a complete set of 130:
- The presence of Bence Jones protein in the urine is most commonly associated with:
A. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia
E. Amyloidosis - In acute rheumatic fever, the most commonly affected heart valve is the:
A. Aortic valve
B. Mitral valve
C. Tricuspid valve
D. Pulmonary valve
E. All valves equally - A “water hammer” (collapsing) pulse is characteristic of:
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Mitral regurgitation
E. Tricuspid regurgitation
Usage Notes
- These MCQs are for practice and review; they are not an official exam paper.
- Each question is single-best-answer format.
- For actual NMCLE preparation, consult official guidelines and past papers as well.
Good luck with your studies!
